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XAT 2023 answer key with solutions

This is the complete XAT 2023 question paper with answer key and solutions — 101 questions across Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning, Decision Making, Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation, General Knowledge, 3h under XAT Part 1 → Part 2 timing. Part 1 (170m): VA & LR, Decision Making, QA & DI with free navigation. Part 2 (10m): GK only (no essay). +1 / −0.25; −0.10 after 8 free skips in Part 1; GK has no negatives. You can attempt this paper free on MBACracked under exam-accurate timing and unlock topic-wise analytics after you finish.

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Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning(26 questions)

Q1Verbal Ability·Paragraph Jumbles

Arrange the following into a meaningful sequence: 1. I’m not sure when I first became aware of the Singularity. 2. In the almost half century that I've immersed myself in computer and related technologies, I've sought to understand the meaning and purpose of the continual upheaval that I have witnessed at many levels. 3. Gradually, I've become aware of a transforming event looming in the first half of the twenty first century. 4. I'd have to say it was a progressive awakening. 5. Just as a black hole in space dramatically alters the patterns of matter and energy accelerating toward its event horizon, this impending Singularity in our future is increasingly transforming every institution and aspect of human life, from sexuality to spirituality.

  • A4,1,2,3,5
  • B1,3,4,5,2Correct answer
  • C1,2,3,4,5
  • D4,3,1,5,2
  • E3,1,2,4,5

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (1,3,4,5,2) 1 introduces the author's uncertainty about when their awareness of the Singularity began and 3 builds on the first one, indicating that the author's awareness has developed gradually, and it specifies that the transforming event (the Singularity) is expected in the first half of the twenty-first century. 4 further emphasizes the gradual nature of the author's awareness, describing it as a "progressive awakening". 5 expands on the analogy of a black hole, drawing a parallel between a black hole's impact on space and the Singularity's transformative effect on various aspects of human life. 2 provides background information, explaining that over almost half a century, the author has been immersed in computer and related technologies, seeking to understand the meaning and purpose behind the continual upheaval witnessed.
Q2Verbal Ability·Paragraph Jumbles

Arrange the following into a meaningful sequence: 1. Our knowledge about life developed over the centuries thanks to the many philosophers, physicists, chemists and biologists, who examined such complex matters according to their different points of view. 2. Out of this long history, I wish to quote here only one date, the year 1953. 3. In that year, Miller and Urey carried out their famous experiment about the primordial universal soup, whose foundations had already been expounded by the Russian chemist Alexandre Oparin in 1924. 4. From a mixture of five gases, methane, ammonia, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and water vapor, and an electric discharge as the source of energy, complex molecules were produced, including amino acids.

  • A1,4,2,3
  • B1,3,4,2
  • C1,2,3,4Correct answer
  • D2,3,1,4
  • E3,1,2,4

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (1,2,3,4) 1 sets the stage by acknowledging the collective efforts of various thinkers over centuries. 2 introduces a specific date, 1953, suggesting a pivotal moment in the history of our understanding. 3 provides context for the significance of 1953, mentioning the experiment conducted by Miller and Urey and its relation to the ideas proposed by Alexandre Oparin in 1924. 4 details the experiment conducted in 1953 and its outcomes, contributing to the development of knowledge about the origin of life.
Q3Reading Comprehension·Inference

Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows. The fundamental laws that govern the smallest constituents of matter and energy, when applied to the Universe over long enough cosmic timescales, can explain everything that will ever emerge. This means that the formation of literally everything in our Universe, from atomic nuclei to atoms to simple molecules to complex molecules to life to intelligence to consciousness and beyond, can all be understood as something that emerges directly from the fundamental laws underpinning reality, with no additional laws and forces.

Which of the following can be BEST inferred from the paragraph above?

  • AFundamental laws operating in the Universe and in an atom are the same.
  • BFundamental laws undergo a change from atom to the Universe.
  • CEverything in the Universe fundamentally occurs randomly.Correct answer
  • DAll phenomena in the Universe fundamentally occur spontaneously.
  • EAll phenomena in the Universe are fundamentally dependent on long cosmic timescales.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Everything in the Universe fundamentally occurs randomly.) What to find. This is a reading-comprehension item whose job is a inference. Ignore decorative examples and focus on the sentence(s) that actually decide the stem. Steps. 1. Paraphrase the author’s claim in one plain line (scope + attitude). 2. Match each option against that paraphrase — keep only what the text warrants. 3. Drop choices that need outside knowledge, flip the author’s tone, or promote a side detail into the main point. Why C. “Everything in the Universe fundamentally occurs randomly.” is the only option that stays inside the passage’s scope and tone for this stem. Why the others fail. • A (“Fundamental laws operating in the Universe and in an atom are the same.”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • B (“Fundamental laws undergo a change from atom to the Universe.”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • D (“All phenomena in the Universe fundamentally occur spontaneously.”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • E (“All phenomena in the Universe are fundamentally dependent on long cosmic timescales.”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes.
Q4Verbal Ability·Critical Reasoning

Which of the following sentences have the CORRECT usage of punctuation?

  • AItaly is famous for its composers and musicians, France, for its chefs and philosophers, and Poland, for its mathematicians and logicians.Correct answer
  • BItaly is famous for its composers and musicians, France for its chefs and philosophers, Poland for its mathematicians and logicians.
  • CItaly is famous for its composers and musicians. France for its chefs and philosophers. Poland for its mathematicians and logicians.
  • DItaly is famous for their composers and musicians; France, for their chefs and philosophers; Poland for their mathematicians and logicians.
  • EItaly is famous, for their composers and musicians; France, for their chefs and philosophers; Poland for their mathematicians and logicians.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Italy is famous for its composers and musicians, France, for its chefs and philosophers, and Poland, for its mathematicians and logicians.) The sentence lists three countries and uses commas to mark the parallel ellipses: Italy is famous for one group, France for another, and Poland for a third. The possessive pronoun must agree with each singular country, so "its" is correct. A supplies both the parallel punctuation and the correct pronouns; the alternatives omit necessary separators, create fragments, or use the plural "their."
Q5Verbal Ability·Critical Reasoning

Fill up the blanks with appropriate words. Oil painting did to appearance what capital did to social____________. It reduced everything to the __________of objects. Everything became __________because everything became a commodity. All reality was mechanically__________ by its materiality.

  • AReality, randomness, saleable, located
  • BRelations, equality, exchangeable, measuredCorrect answer
  • CConstruction, minuteness, commercial, evaluated
  • DJustice, level, expensive, understood
  • ESetup, understanding, useless, identified

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Relations, equality, exchangeable, measured) Option B is the correct answer because it accurately fills the blanks with terms that align with the context and convey the intended meaning. The sentence draws a parallel between the impact of oil painting on appearance and the impact of capital on social relations.The term "relations" aptly describes the complexity of social connections, while "exchangeability" aligns with the idea that both oil painting and capital reduce diverse elements to a commercial, commodified form. "Measured" effectively concludes the sentence, emphasizing the mechanistic quantification of reality based on its material aspects. This option provides a coherent and contextually fitting completion.
Q6Verbal Ability·Sentence Correction

Read the following sentences carefully. 1. The exam will begin from 2:00 p.m. on January 8th. 2. While entering into the college building, he saw the statue of Mahatma Gandhi. 3. The government has entered into a discussion with the local bodies for keeping the streets clean. 4. I will start my world tour from Sri Lanka. 5. Amitabh Bacchan is married with Jaya Bacchan 6. I have been working on this project for three weeks. From the following, choose the option having all the CORRECT sentences.

  • A1, 2, 5
  • B3, 4, 6Correct answer
  • C2, 3, 5
  • D4, 5, 6
  • E1, 3, 4

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (3, 4, 6) Sentence-1 The correct sentence would be, "The exam will begin at 2:00 p.m. on January 8th." Sentence-2 The correct preposition to use with "entering" is "the." The sentence should be: "While entering the college building, he saw the statue of "Mahatma Gandhi." Statement-5 The correct preposition to use with "married" is "to." The sentence should be: "Amitabh Bacchan is married to Jaya Bacchan." Therefore, 3,4 and 6 are the correct sentences.
Q7Verbal Ability·Sentence Correction

Read the following sentences carefully. 1. The boss accused her employee for stealing information. 2. The boss had better discuss the issue with the employee concerned. 3. The India of 2022 is very different from the India of 1947. 4. The government is committed to providing people with food. 5. He is good in playing the piano. From the following, identify the option with INCORRECT sentences.

  • A1, 2
  • B2, 3
  • C3, 4
  • D4, 5
  • E1, 5Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (1, 5) Sentence 1 is incorrect because the idiom is "accused her employee of stealing." Sentence 5 is incorrect because the appropriate expression is "good at playing the piano." Sentences 2, 3 and 4 are acceptable. Therefore the incorrect sentences are 1 and 5, option E.
Q8Verbal Ability·Critical Reasoning

Read the following excerpt carefully. In the future, hydrogen may form a significant part of our energy systems. Today it is mostly used in oil refineries and fertiliser but in the future hydrogen could power our cars, heat our homes, and fuel industry. A recent McKinsey study suggested that in less than 25 years, hydrogen could account for 18% of global energy consumption and reduce carbon dioxide emissions from current levels by some 6 gigatons….

Which of the following sentences will MOST logically complete the above excerpt?

  • AThe impact of such a change in the energy system would be huge, potentially generating USD 2,500 billion in revenue globally and creating more than 30 million jobs.Correct answer
  • BEarlier, experts thought that hydrogen fuel would be too expensive.
  • CDespite the potential, 90% of the general population knew nothing about hydrogen technology.
  • DGermany unsuccessfully experimented with trains fuelled by hydrogen.
  • EHydrogen can be made through reformation, electrolysis, or pyrolysis, comes labelled in different colours from simple green to more complicated turquoise, can be stored as a gas, cryogenic liquid, converted to ammonia or even borane and then finally made useful through a fuel cell, engine, or burner.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (The impact of such a change in the energy system would be huge, potentially generating USD 2,500 billion in revenue globally and creating more than 30 million jobs.) The excerpt ends with quantified projections for hydrogen's future share of energy and reduction of carbon emissions. A continues that projection by stating the corresponding economic and employment impact. The other choices switch to past doubts, public awareness, an isolated failed trial or technical production details, none of which completes the forward-looking argument as directly.
Q9Reading Comprehension·Structure & Organization

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. More people signed up for Harvard’s online courses in a year, for example, than have attended the university in its 377 years of existence. In the same spirit, there are more unique visits each month to the WebMD network, a collection of health websites, than to all the doctors working in the United States. In the legal world, three times as many disagreements each year amongst eBay traders are resolved using ‘online dispute resolution’ than there are lawsuits filed in the entire US court system. On its sixth birthday, the Huffington Post had more unique monthly visitors than the website of the New York Times, which is almost 164 years of age. The British tax authorities use a fraud-detection system that holds more data than the British Library (which has copies of every book ever published in the UK). In 2014, the US tax authorities received electronic tax returns from almost 48 million people who had used online tax preparation software rather than a tax professional to help them. The architectural firm Gramazio & Kohler used a group of autonomous flying robots to assemble a structure out of 1500 bricks. The consulting firm Accenture has 750 hospital nurses on its staff, while Deloitte, founded as an audit practice 170 years ago, now has over 200,000 professionals and its own full-scale corporate university set in a 700,000-square-foot campus in Texas.

The author of the above paragraph is trying to conclude something by citing different pieces of evidence. What could the author be trying to prove?

  • AHow old firms are dying.
  • BHow new organizational forms are emergingCorrect answer
  • CHow automation is taking away jobs traditionally done by humans.
  • DHow professionals are getting replaced by technology
  • EWhat old firms can do to survive.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (How new organizational forms are emerging) The passage provides various examples of how technological advancements and online platforms are changing traditional ways of doing things, such as education, healthcare, legal dispute resolution, news consumption, tax preparation, architecture, and the structure of organizations. The examples collectively suggest a shift toward new organizational forms and approaches. Therefore, Option B is the correct choice.
Q10Verbal Ability·Critical Reasoning

Read the following statements. The leave policy is bound to be unpopular either with the management or among workers. If the leave policy is unpopular with the management, it should be modified. We should adopt a new policy if it is unpopular with workers. If the above statements are true, which one of the following MUST also be true?

  • AWe should attempt to popularize the leave policy among either the management or workers.
  • BWe should modify the leave policy only if this will not reduce its popularity among workers.
  • CWe should modify the leave policy if modification will not reduce its popularity with the management.
  • DIf the leave policy is popular among workers, then we should adopt a new policy.
  • EIf the leave policy is popular with the management, then we should adopt a new policy.Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (If the leave policy is popular with the management, then we should adopt a new policy.) In this question, the statements say that the leave policy is bound to be unpopular either with the management or among workers. In Option E, it is given that the leave policy is popular with the management => it should be unpopular among the workers. The statement says that we should adopt a new policy if it is unpopular with workers. Therefore, Option E is correct.
Q11Reading Comprehension·Inference

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. As a generation, we are rethinking what we are to others. Our technological prowess has become a wireless lifeline for others. Some of us apply ourselves to innovation: hackathons and other forms of technological creativity. Our families look to us to know how to use technology both to waste time and to make meaning. Some of us set up Facetime for those denied face‐to‐face time. We show them it will be OK, that digital relationships are real relationships – though in fact we are not always sure.

Which of the following, will be a most MEANINGFUL conclusion of the passage?

  • AChange is the only constant in life, so people must embrace technologyCorrect answer
  • BTechnological advancement helps society derive meaning from work
  • CThe Pandemic has increased societal dependence on technology
  • DTechnology usage has changed social relations for this generation
  • ETechnology is destroying families and communities

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Change is the only constant in life, so people must embrace technology) What to find. This is a reading-comprehension item whose job is a passage-supported choice. Ignore decorative examples and focus on the sentence(s) that actually decide the stem. Steps. 1. Paraphrase the author’s claim in one plain line (scope + attitude). 2. Match each option against that paraphrase — keep only what the text warrants. 3. Drop choices that need outside knowledge, flip the author’s tone, or promote a side detail into the main point. Why A. “Change is the only constant in life, so people must embrace technology” is the only option that stays inside the passage’s scope and tone for this stem. Why the others fail. • B (“Technological advancement helps society derive meaning from work”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • C (“The Pandemic has increased societal dependence on technology”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • D (“Technology usage has changed social relations for this generation”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • E (“Technology is destroying families and communities”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes.
Q12Reading Comprehension·Inference

When facing various challenges, people in today’s digital world heavily rely on private, online information-seeking behaviour. Individuals who experience depression will often attempt to understand their predicament and seek remedy by searching the Internet for depression-related information and treatment. A recent report says that there exists evidence of many searches comprising the word depression, during and just after the elections, in country Y. So, it can be concluded that the election is experienced by many people in country Y as a truly psychologically traumatizing event—and as such as being potentially depressionogenic.

Which of the following statements MOST seriously weakens the conclusion drawn in the passage?

  • APer day sale of anti-depression drugs is constant across the years in country Y.
  • BMany people do not use the Internet in country X.
  • CElection is a festival in some countries, people happily choose their leader by casting votes.
  • DA survey in country Y shows that an election can cause a significant increase in the average level of depression.
  • EDepression-related advertisements are on the rise during and just after the election in country Y.Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E What to find. This is a reading-comprehension item whose job is a inference. Ignore decorative examples and focus on the sentence(s) that actually decide the stem. Steps. 1. Paraphrase the author’s claim in one plain line (scope + attitude). 2. Match each option against that paraphrase — keep only what the text warrants. 3. Drop choices that need outside knowledge, flip the author’s tone, or promote a side detail into the main point. Why E. “Depression-related advertisements are on the rise during and just after the election in country Y.” is the only option that stays inside the passage’s scope and tone for this stem. Why the others fail. • A (“Per day sale of anti-depression drugs is constant across the years in country Y.”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • B (“Many people do not use the Internet in country X.”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • C (“Election is a festival in some countries, people happily choose their leader by casting votes.”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes. • D (“A survey in country Y shows that an election can cause a significant increase in the average level …”) — overreaches the passage, understates a clear claim, or invents a causal/attitudinal link the author never makes.
Q13Reading Comprehension·Poem & Literary Analysis

Read the poem and answer the TWO questions that follow. The slow person you left behind when, finally, you mastered the world, and scaled the heights you now command, where is he while you walked around the shaved lawn in your plus fours, organizing with an electric clipboard your big push to tomorrow? Oh, I have come across him, yes, I have, more than once, coaxing his battered grocery cart down the freeway meridian, Others see in you sundry mythic types distinguished not just in themselves but by the stories we put in with beginnings, ends, surprises: the baby Oedipus on the hillside with his broken feet or the dog whose barking saves the grandmother flailing in the millpond beyond the weir, dragged down by her woolen skirt. He doesn’t see you as a story, though. He feels you as his atmosphere. When your sun shines, he chorteles. When your barometric pressure drops and the thunder heads gather, he huddles under the overpass and writes me long letters with the study little pencil he steals from the public library. He asks me to look out for you.

Which of the following BEST captures the theme of the poem?

  • AThe poem is exploring the lives of the rich and the poor
  • BThe poem is examining a loss of trust between old friends
  • CThe poem is celebrating success and moaning losses
  • DThe poem is analysing a person’s past and presentCorrect answer
  • EThe poem is meaninglessly brooding over the past

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (The poem is analysing a person’s past and present) Option D is the correct answer because the poem primarily focuses on analyzing the past and present of a person who has achieved success. The narrative explores the contrast between the current state of success, as depicted by images of walking around a shaved lawn and organizing with an electric clipboard, and the past where the person left someone less fortunate behind. The poem reflects on the consequences of success, the disparity between the two individuals, and the emotional impact on both. It doesn't merely celebrate success or moan losses but provides a thoughtful analysis of the dynamics between the successful person and the one left behind, making Option D the most fitting choice.
Q14Reading Comprehension·Poem & Literary Analysis

Read the poem and answer the TWO questions that follow. The slow person you left behind when, finally, you mastered the world, and scaled the heights you now command, where is he while you walked around the shaved lawn in your plus fours, organizing with an electric clipboard your big push to tomorrow? Oh, I have come across him, yes, I have, more than once, coaxing his battered grocery cart down the freeway meridian, Others see in you sundry mythic types distinguished not just in themselves but by the stories we put in with beginnings, ends, surprises: the baby Oedipus on the hillside with his broken feet or the dog whose barking saves the grandmother flailing in the millpond beyond the weir, dragged down by her woolen skirt. He doesn’t see you as a story, though. He feels you as his atmosphere. When your sun shines, he chorteles. When your barometric pressure drops and the thunder heads gather, he huddles under the overpass and writes me long letters with the study little pencil he steals from the public library. He asks me to look out for you.

Which of the following statements BEST interprets the lines “He doesn’t see you as a story, though/He feels you as his atmosphere”?

  • AYour present subsumes your pastCorrect answer
  • BYou are not a narrative of the past
  • CYou are larger than life
  • DYou are haunted by your past
  • EYou are an extension of the past

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Your present subsumes your past) The lines "He doesn’t see you as a story, though/He feels you as his atmosphere" suggest that the person in question is not perceived as a narrative or story but is rather felt as a pervasive and ever-present influence akin to an atmosphere. This implies that the present experience and impact of the person are more significant than a retrospective narrative, aligning with the idea that the present subsumes the past. Therefore, Option A is the correct answer. Option D:The lines don't imply a sense of haunting; instead, they emphasize the person's present influence. Option C:While the person may have achieved success, the lines focus on their immediate impact, not necessarily portraying them as larger than life. Option B:This options oversimplifies the message the author is trying to convey. Option E:The lines emphasize the person's present impact, suggesting a more immediate and encompassing influence rather than being merely an extension of the past.
Q15Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Socrates believed that akrasia (meaning procrastination) was, strictly speaking, impossible, since we could not want what is bad for us; if we act against our own interests, it must be because we don’t know what’s right. Loewenstein, similarly, is inclined to see the procrastinator as led astray by the “visceral” rewards of the present. As the nineteenth-century Scottish economist John Rae put it, “The prospects of future good, which future years may hold on us, seem at such a moment dull and dubious, and are apt to be slighted, for objects on which the daylight is falling strongly, and showing us in all their freshness just within our grasp.” Loewenstein also suggests that our memory for the intensity of visceral rewards is deficient: when we put off preparing for that meeting by telling ourselves that we’ll do it tomorrow, we fail to take into account that tomorrow the temptation to put off work will be just as strong. Ignorance might also affect procrastination through what the social scientist Jon Elster calls “the planning fallacy.” Elster thinks that people underestimate the time “it will take them to complete a given task, partly because they fail to take account of how long it has taken them to complete similar projects in the past and partly because they rely on smooth scenarios in which accidents or unforeseen problems never occur.”

According to the passage, in regard to time, which of the following statements gives the BEST reason for procrastination?

  • ATime is not planned according to the task
  • BTime is taken as linear in the task
  • CTime is estimated according to the new task
  • DTime is underestimated for a particular taskCorrect answer
  • ETime is not taken into account

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Time is underestimated for a particular task) The passage suggests that procrastination can be influenced by the tendency of individuals to underestimate the time required to complete a given task. This underestimation is attributed to a failure to consider past experiences with similar projects and a reliance on overly optimistic scenarios where potential obstacles or unforeseen problems are not taken into account. Therefore, the passage implies that one of the reasons for procrastination is a systemic miscalculation of the time needed for specific tasks, making option D the most accurate and comprehensive choice. The passage doesn't emphasize estimation based on the novelty of the task (Option C) nor does it discuss a linear perception of time within a task (Option B). Option A:The passage discusses the planning fallacy, where time is inadequately planned, not the absence of planning. Option D:The passage highlights the planning fallacy, indicating that time is considered but often underestimated for specific tasks.
Q16Reading Comprehension·Inference

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Socrates believed that akrasia (meaning procrastination) was, strictly speaking, impossible, since we could not want what is bad for us; if we act against our own interests, it must be because we don’t know what’s right. Loewenstein, similarly, is inclined to see the procrastinator as led astray by the “visceral” rewards of the present. As the nineteenth-century Scottish economist John Rae put it, “The prospects of future good, which future years may hold on us, seem at such a moment dull and dubious, and are apt to be slighted, for objects on which the daylight is falling strongly, and showing us in all their freshness just within our grasp.” Loewenstein also suggests that our memory for the intensity of visceral rewards is deficient: when we put off preparing for that meeting by telling ourselves that we’ll do it tomorrow, we fail to take into account that tomorrow the temptation to put off work will be just as strong. Ignorance might also affect procrastination through what the social scientist Jon Elster calls “the planning fallacy.” Elster thinks that people underestimate the time “it will take them to complete a given task, partly because they fail to take account of how long it has taken them to complete similar projects in the past and partly because they rely on smooth scenarios in which accidents or unforeseen problems never occur.”

Which of the following statements can be BEST inferred from the passage about procrastination?

  • AIt is an act against our own interests because of our ignorance.Correct answer
  • BIt is a tendency of postponing the present work to the future.
  • CIt is a success of self-regulation and planning.
  • DIt is an irrational delay of task despite potentially negative consequences.
  • EIt is a mistake that happens due to myopic vision and linear thinking.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (It is an act against our own interests because of our ignorance.) Option A is a correct inference based on the passage's discussion of Socrates' perspective on akrasia (procrastination). The passage suggests that Socrates believed procrastination to be strictly impossible because individuals would not willingly choose what is bad for them. Instead, procrastination, according to this view, is attributed to ignorance of what is right. Therefore, the inference that procrastination is an act against our own interests due to ignorance aligns with the passage's exploration of philosophical perspectives on the phenomenon. Option C: The passage emphasizes the planning fallacy and underestimation of time, portraying procrastination as a failure in planning rather than a success. Option E: While myopic vision and linear thinking are discussed, the passage suggests that procrastination involves more than just a simple mistake, encompassing complex psychological factors. Option B is somewhat accurate but lacks the depth of understanding that procrastination involves irrational delays influenced by various factors beyond simple postponement. Option D, while generally accurate, does not highlight the ignorance aspect as explicitly as Option A.
Q17Reading Comprehension·Inference

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Socrates believed that akrasia (meaning procrastination) was, strictly speaking, impossible, since we could not want what is bad for us; if we act against our own interests, it must be because we don’t know what’s right. Loewenstein, similarly, is inclined to see the procrastinator as led astray by the “visceral” rewards of the present. As the nineteenth-century Scottish economist John Rae put it, “The prospects of future good, which future years may hold on us, seem at such a moment dull and dubious, and are apt to be slighted, for objects on which the daylight is falling strongly, and showing us in all their freshness just within our grasp.” Loewenstein also suggests that our memory for the intensity of visceral rewards is deficient: when we put off preparing for that meeting by telling ourselves that we’ll do it tomorrow, we fail to take into account that tomorrow the temptation to put off work will be just as strong. Ignorance might also affect procrastination through what the social scientist Jon Elster calls “the planning fallacy.” Elster thinks that people underestimate the time “it will take them to complete a given task, partly because they fail to take account of how long it has taken them to complete similar projects in the past and partly because they rely on smooth scenarios in which accidents or unforeseen problems never occur.”

Which of the following is the meaning that comes CLOSEST to “our memory for the intensity of visceral rewards is deficient” as suggested by Loewenstein?

  • AOur brain does not capture the intensity of pleasure we get by procrastination.
  • BOur brain partially captures the memory of rewards we get by procrastination.
  • COur brain does not differentiate memories of different rewards we get by procrastinating.
  • DOur brain does not support us with memories which can stop us from procrastinating further.Correct answer
  • EOur brain does not support us in recalling intense memories while procrastinating further.

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Our brain does not support us with memories which can stop us from procrastinating further.) Option D aligns with the idea that Loewenstein suggests: deficient memory for the intensity of visceral rewards. It implies that our brain lacks the support or ability to furnish memories that would act as deterrents to further procrastination. In other words, the deficiency in memory inhibits our capacity to recall negative aspects or consequences associated with past procrastination experiences, potentially contributing to the continuation of procrastinating behavior. While it doesn't explicitly address the deficient memory for the pleasure intensity, it captures the impact of this deficiency on our ability to use memories as a deterrent to procrastination.
Q18Reading Comprehension·Vocabulary in Context

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Interpretation in our own time, however, is even more complex. For the contemporary zeal for the project of interpretation is often prompted not by piety toward the troublesome text (which may conceal an aggression), but by an open aggressiveness, an overt contempt for appearances. The old style of interpretation was insistent, but respectful; it erected another meaning on top of the literal one. The modern style of interpretation excavates, and as it excavates, destroys; it digs “behind” the text, to find a sub-text which is the true one. The most celebrated and influential modern doctrines, those of Marx and Freud, actually amount to elaborate systems of hermeneutics, aggressive and impious theories of interpretation. All observable phenomena are bracketed, in Freud’s phrase, as manifest content. This manifest content must be probed and pushed aside to find the true meaning— the latent content beneath. For Marx, social events like revolutions and wars; for Freud, the events of individual lives (like neurotic symptoms and slips of the tongue) as well as texts (like a dream or a work of art)—all are treated as occasions for interpretation. According to Marx and Freud, these events only seem to be intelligible. Actually, they have no meaning without interpretation. To understand is to interpret. And to interpret is to restate the phenomenon, in effect to find an equivalent for it. Thus, interpretation is not (as most people assume) an absolute value, a gesture of mind situated in some timeless realm of capabilities. Interpretation must itself be evaluated, within a historical view of human consciousness. In some cultural contexts, interpretation is a liberating act. It is a means of revising, of transvaluing, of escaping the dead past. In other cultural contexts, it is reactionary, impertinent, cowardly and stifling.

What does the author mean by “Thus, interpretation is not…a gesture of mind situated in some timeless realm of capabilities?”

  • AInterpretation is an act of mind which is situated in a changeless domain.
  • BInterpretation is about erecting another meaning on top of the literal one.
  • CInterpretation is being evaluative of the meaning created by an authority.
  • DInterpretation is about revisiting and reinventing meanings.Correct answer
  • EInterpretation is act of understanding, developed by timeless experts.

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Interpretation is about revisiting and reinventing meanings.) The phrase "interpretation is not…a gesture of mind situated in some timeless realm of capabilities" implies that interpretation is not a static or unchanging mental process. Instead, it is a dynamic and context-dependent activity that involves revisiting and reinventing meanings based on the historical and cultural context. Option D best expresses the idea that interpretation is about engaging with and reshaping meanings in response to evolving contexts, aligning well with the author's intent in the passage. Option C: The passage does not specifically discuss evaluation in terms of authority but emphasizes the act of interpretation itself. Option A: The passage suggests the opposite, highlighting the dynamic and historical nature of interpretation. Option B represents the old style of interpretation, which the passage contrasts with the modern style of excavation and destruction. Option E: The passage does not attribute interpretation to timeless experts but rather explores its historical and cultural variability.
Q19Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Interpretation in our own time, however, is even more complex. For the contemporary zeal for the project of interpretation is often prompted not by piety toward the troublesome text (which may conceal an aggression), but by an open aggressiveness, an overt contempt for appearances. The old style of interpretation was insistent, but respectful; it erected another meaning on top of the literal one. The modern style of interpretation excavates, and as it excavates, destroys; it digs “behind” the text, to find a sub-text which is the true one. The most celebrated and influential modern doctrines, those of Marx and Freud, actually amount to elaborate systems of hermeneutics, aggressive and impious theories of interpretation. All observable phenomena are bracketed, in Freud’s phrase, as manifest content. This manifest content must be probed and pushed aside to find the true meaning— the latent content beneath. For Marx, social events like revolutions and wars; for Freud, the events of individual lives (like neurotic symptoms and slips of the tongue) as well as texts (like a dream or a work of art)—all are treated as occasions for interpretation. According to Marx and Freud, these events only seem to be intelligible. Actually, they have no meaning without interpretation. To understand is to interpret. And to interpret is to restate the phenomenon, in effect to find an equivalent for it. Thus, interpretation is not (as most people assume) an absolute value, a gesture of mind situated in some timeless realm of capabilities. Interpretation must itself be evaluated, within a historical view of human consciousness. In some cultural contexts, interpretation is a liberating act. It is a means of revising, of transvaluing, of escaping the dead past. In other cultural contexts, it is reactionary, impertinent, cowardly and stifling.

According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an act of interpretation?

  • ACritical appreciation of a literary text
  • BLabelling a text as blasphemousCorrect answer
  • CInvestigating class-conflict in Charles Dicken’s novels
  • DSearching for underlying themes in a historical document
  • EFinding underlying causes of a social evil described in a book

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Labelling a text as blasphemous) Option B is the correct answer because labeling a text as blasphemous is not an act of interpretation in the context discussed in the passage. The passage emphasizes a dynamic and context-dependent approach to interpretation, involving the exploration and excavation of meanings within texts. Labelling a text as blasphemous is more of a judgment or categorization based on personal or cultural beliefs, and it does not align with the nuanced and exploratory nature of interpretation as described in the passage. Interpretation, as presented in the passage, involves a deeper engagement with the content, seeking underlying themes, causes, or appreciating the complexity of literary texts rather than simply assigning a label.
Q20Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Interpretation in our own time, however, is even more complex. For the contemporary zeal for the project of interpretation is often prompted not by piety toward the troublesome text (which may conceal an aggression), but by an open aggressiveness, an overt contempt for appearances. The old style of interpretation was insistent, but respectful; it erected another meaning on top of the literal one. The modern style of interpretation excavates, and as it excavates, destroys; it digs “behind” the text, to find a sub-text which is the true one. The most celebrated and influential modern doctrines, those of Marx and Freud, actually amount to elaborate systems of hermeneutics, aggressive and impious theories of interpretation. All observable phenomena are bracketed, in Freud’s phrase, as manifest content. This manifest content must be probed and pushed aside to find the true meaning— the latent content beneath. For Marx, social events like revolutions and wars; for Freud, the events of individual lives (like neurotic symptoms and slips of the tongue) as well as texts (like a dream or a work of art)—all are treated as occasions for interpretation. According to Marx and Freud, these events only seem to be intelligible. Actually, they have no meaning without interpretation. To understand is to interpret. And to interpret is to restate the phenomenon, in effect to find an equivalent for it. Thus, interpretation is not (as most people assume) an absolute value, a gesture of mind situated in some timeless realm of capabilities. Interpretation must itself be evaluated, within a historical view of human consciousness. In some cultural contexts, interpretation is a liberating act. It is a means of revising, of transvaluing, of escaping the dead past. In other cultural contexts, it is reactionary, impertinent, cowardly and stifling.

Which of the following BEST differentiates manifest content from the latent content?

  • AManifest content is loaded whereas latent content is elusive
  • BManifest content is obscure whereas latent content is lucid
  • CManifest content is a superset whereas latent content is a subset
  • DManifest content is apparent whereas latent content is hiddenCorrect answer
  • EManifest content is natural whereas latent content is cultural

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Manifest content is apparent whereas latent content is hidden) Option D is correct because it accurately differentiates between manifest content and latent content as described in the passage. Manifest content refers to the apparent, surface-level content, while latent content is hidden, requiring interpretation. The words "apparent" and "hidden" effectively capture this distinction, making Option D the best choice. Option A mischaracterizes manifest content and latent content by introducing terms like "loaded" and "elusive" that do not align with the passage's description. Option E: The passage doesn't make a distinction based on natural or cultural elements but focuses on the visibility and hidden nature of the content. Option B misinterprets the nature of manifest and latent content; manifest content is not necessarily obscure, and latent content is not inherently lucid. Option C: They are not hierarchical in a superset-subset relationship but rather represent different layers of meaning in interpretation.
Q21Reading Comprehension·Vocabulary in Context

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Corporations continue to ignore the threat of global warming, probably because global warming is a hyper-object, very difficult to touch and feel. Because hyper-objects have much wider time-space boundaries than human beings, we tend to consider hyper-objects as given and non-existent. Therefore, it is very difficult to deal with hyper-objects as their common understanding is lacking. Some of us continue to believe that global warming is blown out of proportion-it is not a serious threat. Even those who understood hyper-objects have yet to figure out right response to them. The lack of understanding and response from corporations to “climate change” is evident from the fact that most of businesses have remained largely human-centric. Some businesses have adopted green practices- voluntarily, or involuntary. These efforts attempt to reduce emissions through better energy efficiency. Though laudable, the efforts have failed to make any significant dent at the global level; the planet continues to get warmer. Moreover, most of the efforts are still in the sphere of “business as usual” and “what is good for us”. Business as usual, the current model of economic production and distribution is deeply flawed as it is based mainly on the capitalistic ethos of free- market legitimized through private property, competition, and unlimited consumption. The word “free” has come to mean that there are no constraints on individuals, and the word market has come to mean that buying and selling are the primary mechanisms, and everything is a transaction. Private property gives individuals/nations a chance to create legal rights to own more and more, subject to very little constraints. It is evident in income inequalities witnessed across the world. The very notion of ownership is control-oriented and human-centric that promotes unlimited extraction from environment, hyper-nationalism, and hyper-individualism. The extraction and exploitation of the environment has served our economic interests, and led to the growth and survival of businesses. However, it has also led to the destruction of environment. Global warming is the response of nature to human actions driven by businesses operating on the principles of surplus, predictability, control, hyper-rationality, linearity, and quantification. In other words, “business as usual” has yet to dance to the rhythm of nature.

According to the passage, which of the following will be closest to the idea of hyper-object?

  • AHow a technology company contributed to the development of a mobile phone technology.
  • BHow regular exercise makes our body healthy.
  • CHow the Earth, over centuries, takes less time to revolve around the Sun.Correct answer
  • DHow temperature fluctuates because of seasons.
  • EHow hard work leads to better grades for students.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (How the Earth, over centuries, takes less time to revolve around the Sun.) Option C is the correct answer because it aligns with the concept of a hyper-object as described in the passage. A hyper-object is characterized by extensive time-space boundaries that are challenging for humans to fully comprehend. The changing orbit of the Earth over centuries involves a broad time-scale and complex spatial dynamics, making it closer to the idea of a hyper-object compared to the other options. Option D involves a cyclical and relatively more immediate phenomenon, not reflecting the extensive time-space boundaries associated with hyper-objects. Option B is a more localized cause-and-effect relationship, lacking the complexity and broader scope of a hyper-object. Option E represents a specific cause-and-effect scenario within a limited context, not meeting the criteria of a hyper-object. Option A involves a specific and relatively more immediate technological contribution, not encompassing the extensive time-space boundaries characteristic of hyper-objects.
Q22Reading Comprehension·Vocabulary in Context

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Corporations continue to ignore the threat of global warming, probably because global warming is a hyper-object, very difficult to touch and feel. Because hyper-objects have much wider time-space boundaries than human beings, we tend to consider hyper-objects as given and non-existent. Therefore, it is very difficult to deal with hyper-objects as their common understanding is lacking. Some of us continue to believe that global warming is blown out of proportion-it is not a serious threat. Even those who understood hyper-objects have yet to figure out right response to them. The lack of understanding and response from corporations to “climate change” is evident from the fact that most of businesses have remained largely human-centric. Some businesses have adopted green practices- voluntarily, or involuntary. These efforts attempt to reduce emissions through better energy efficiency. Though laudable, the efforts have failed to make any significant dent at the global level; the planet continues to get warmer. Moreover, most of the efforts are still in the sphere of “business as usual” and “what is good for us”. Business as usual, the current model of economic production and distribution is deeply flawed as it is based mainly on the capitalistic ethos of free- market legitimized through private property, competition, and unlimited consumption. The word “free” has come to mean that there are no constraints on individuals, and the word market has come to mean that buying and selling are the primary mechanisms, and everything is a transaction. Private property gives individuals/nations a chance to create legal rights to own more and more, subject to very little constraints. It is evident in income inequalities witnessed across the world. The very notion of ownership is control-oriented and human-centric that promotes unlimited extraction from environment, hyper-nationalism, and hyper-individualism. The extraction and exploitation of the environment has served our economic interests, and led to the growth and survival of businesses. However, it has also led to the destruction of environment. Global warming is the response of nature to human actions driven by businesses operating on the principles of surplus, predictability, control, hyper-rationality, linearity, and quantification. In other words, “business as usual” has yet to dance to the rhythm of nature.

Based on the passage, which of the following is NOT an example of human-centric statement?

  • AWe should plant trees as they provide us with Oxygen.
  • BWe should use natural resources for economic growth.
  • CWe should respect nature for its inherent intelligence.Correct answer
  • DWe should not cut trees as it causes excessive floods, destroying crops and human habitats.
  • EWe should preserve nature for our future generations.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (We should respect nature for its inherent intelligence.) The passage criticizes a human-centric perspective that prioritizes human interests and exploits nature for economic growth. Option C, on the other hand, suggests an approach that values nature for its inherent intelligence, emphasizing a more intrinsic and non-exploitative perspective.Therefore Option C is the correct answer. Option B reflects a human-centric perspective by emphasizing the utilization of natural resources for economic gain, which is in line with the passage's critique of human-centric approaches contributing to environmental degradation. Option A is incorrect as while promoting tree planting for oxygen is environmentally positive, the statement still centers on the benefit to humans, aligning with a human-centric viewpoint. Option E, although advocating for preservation, is still framed in terms of human interests, focusing on the well-being of future generations. Option D , despite addressing environmental consequences, is ultimately centered around the negative impacts on humans.
Q23Reading Comprehension·Vocabulary in Context

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. Corporations continue to ignore the threat of global warming, probably because global warming is a hyper-object, very difficult to touch and feel. Because hyper-objects have much wider time-space boundaries than human beings, we tend to consider hyper-objects as given and non-existent. Therefore, it is very difficult to deal with hyper-objects as their common understanding is lacking. Some of us continue to believe that global warming is blown out of proportion-it is not a serious threat. Even those who understood hyper-objects have yet to figure out right response to them. The lack of understanding and response from corporations to “climate change” is evident from the fact that most of businesses have remained largely human-centric. Some businesses have adopted green practices- voluntarily, or involuntary. These efforts attempt to reduce emissions through better energy efficiency. Though laudable, the efforts have failed to make any significant dent at the global level; the planet continues to get warmer. Moreover, most of the efforts are still in the sphere of “business as usual” and “what is good for us”. Business as usual, the current model of economic production and distribution is deeply flawed as it is based mainly on the capitalistic ethos of free- market legitimized through private property, competition, and unlimited consumption. The word “free” has come to mean that there are no constraints on individuals, and the word market has come to mean that buying and selling are the primary mechanisms, and everything is a transaction. Private property gives individuals/nations a chance to create legal rights to own more and more, subject to very little constraints. It is evident in income inequalities witnessed across the world. The very notion of ownership is control-oriented and human-centric that promotes unlimited extraction from environment, hyper-nationalism, and hyper-individualism. The extraction and exploitation of the environment has served our economic interests, and led to the growth and survival of businesses. However, it has also led to the destruction of environment. Global warming is the response of nature to human actions driven by businesses operating on the principles of surplus, predictability, control, hyper-rationality, linearity, and quantification. In other words, “business as usual” has yet to dance to the rhythm of nature.

Which of the following statement(s) is NOT in consonance with the author’s views, as expressed in the passage? 1. Patents should be respected. 2. Trading of shares on the free stock markets should be promoted. 3. Building a beautiful resort on a hilltop.

  • A3 only
  • B1 & 2 only
  • C1 & 3 only
  • D2 & 3 only
  • E1, 2 & 3Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (1, 2 & 3) Statement 1 The passage does not explicitly discuss patents, and there is no clear indication of the author's view on this matter. Without information on the author's stance, it cannot be concluded whether this statement is in consonance with the author's views or not. Statement 2 The passage criticises the flaws in the current economic model, particularly the capitalist ethos of free-market trading, suggesting that it contributes to environmental problems. Therefore, this statement is not in line with the author’s views either. Statement 3: This is also not in line with the author’s views as the passage implies a critique of human-centric activities that exploit nature for economic gain, and building a resort on a hilltop could be seen as an example of such exploitation. Therefore the correct answer is Option E : 1,2 and 3
Q24Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. It is harder and harder to make sense of life. Everything is changing, all the time, at a faster and faster pace. Our civilization is struggling to keep up with exponential technology and disruptive change. Our age-old institutions, politics, economics, ethics, religion and laws, even our environment, are so fundamentally challenged, that we risk collapse. Our stories have gotten so divorced from reality, so divisive, so inflexible and so inept to adapt to and explain our present, let alone guide us towards a better future, that we often feel like helpless passengers on a Titanic spaceship Earth. No wonder Aristotle observed that “When the storytelling goes bad in a society, the result is decadence.” But why is this the case? And, perhaps more importantly, how is it that bad storytelling can keep, if not bring, a whole society down? Is that not simply overstating the power of story? Literary theorist Kenneth Burke famously noted: “Stories are equipment for human living. We need storytelling in order to make certain sense out of life.” If that is true then our equipment for living has gone obsolete. And unless we upgrade it we are going to go obsolete too. It was this process that Fred Polak had in mind in 1961 while observing: Any student of the rise and fall of cultures cannot fail to be impressed by the role played in this historical succession by the image of the future. The rise and fall of images precede or accompany the rise and fall of cultures. As long as a society’s image is positive and flourishing, the flower of culture is in full bloom. Once the image begins to decay and lose its vitality, however, the culture does not long survive. That is why we desperately need a new story. A story that will not only help us make sense of the world today but also unite us as a species of human beings. A story that will motivate us to stop bickering and resolve our common problems. A story that will inspire us to achieve our common goals and guide us towards a better future for all sentient beings on our planet. We have to rewrite the human story. Because the old stories that brought us thus far are no longer useful. They’ve lost their vision and grandeur. They’ve become petty and short-sighted. They’re stuck in a past that never was at the expense of a future that can be. They divide us and keep us bickering while our civilization is facing unprecedented diversity and depth of existential challenges. Those stories are not simply our history. They are now our chains. And unless we break them, they will be our death sentence. So, it is worth exploring if or how new stories, good stories can bring us up. The human story that brought us into the 21st century was written and rewritten several times. The latest major update was perhaps during the industrial revolution. It is time to rewrite it again. We need a new story. A brave story. An unreasonable story. A story that can inspire, unite and motivate us to break free from the past and create the best possible future.

According to the passage, which of the following is NOT associated with bad storytelling in a society?

  • AIt’s inability to create a future image that is positive and flourishing.
  • BIt is inclusive.Correct answer
  • CIt cannot stop bickering.
  • DIts ability to create a compelling goal for some sections.
  • EThey were written before 21st Century.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (It is inclusive.) Option B is the correct answer because the passage does not attribute bad storytelling in a society to its lack of inclusivity. The passage highlights issues with existing stories, such as their inability to create a positive future image, their divisiveness leading to bickering, and their outdated nature. However, the concept of inclusivity is not explicitly linked to the problems associated with bad storytelling. Instead, the passage emphasizes the need for a new, unifying narrative to address societal challenges and inspire collaborative efforts. Therefore, the absence of inclusivity as a problem aligns with the passage's context and makes Option B the correct choice. Options A, B, C and D have been mentioned in the passage and hence can be associated with bad storytelling.
Q25Reading Comprehension·Main Idea / Purpose

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. It is harder and harder to make sense of life. Everything is changing, all the time, at a faster and faster pace. Our civilization is struggling to keep up with exponential technology and disruptive change. Our age-old institutions, politics, economics, ethics, religion and laws, even our environment, are so fundamentally challenged, that we risk collapse. Our stories have gotten so divorced from reality, so divisive, so inflexible and so inept to adapt to and explain our present, let alone guide us towards a better future, that we often feel like helpless passengers on a Titanic spaceship Earth. No wonder Aristotle observed that “When the storytelling goes bad in a society, the result is decadence.” But why is this the case? And, perhaps more importantly, how is it that bad storytelling can keep, if not bring, a whole society down? Is that not simply overstating the power of story? Literary theorist Kenneth Burke famously noted: “Stories are equipment for human living. We need storytelling in order to make certain sense out of life.” If that is true then our equipment for living has gone obsolete. And unless we upgrade it we are going to go obsolete too. It was this process that Fred Polak had in mind in 1961 while observing: Any student of the rise and fall of cultures cannot fail to be impressed by the role played in this historical succession by the image of the future. The rise and fall of images precede or accompany the rise and fall of cultures. As long as a society’s image is positive and flourishing, the flower of culture is in full bloom. Once the image begins to decay and lose its vitality, however, the culture does not long survive. That is why we desperately need a new story. A story that will not only help us make sense of the world today but also unite us as a species of human beings. A story that will motivate us to stop bickering and resolve our common problems. A story that will inspire us to achieve our common goals and guide us towards a better future for all sentient beings on our planet. We have to rewrite the human story. Because the old stories that brought us thus far are no longer useful. They’ve lost their vision and grandeur. They’ve become petty and short-sighted. They’re stuck in a past that never was at the expense of a future that can be. They divide us and keep us bickering while our civilization is facing unprecedented diversity and depth of existential challenges. Those stories are not simply our history. They are now our chains. And unless we break them, they will be our death sentence. So, it is worth exploring if or how new stories, good stories can bring us up. The human story that brought us into the 21st century was written and rewritten several times. The latest major update was perhaps during the industrial revolution. It is time to rewrite it again. We need a new story. A brave story. An unreasonable story. A story that can inspire, unite and motivate us to break free from the past and create the best possible future.

Which of the following options BEST captures the essence of a GOOD STORY?

  • ALife is full of sorrows and only death can provide a solution.
  • BCompared to other nations, our nation has played a special role in progress of humanity.
  • CLaying of railways led to economic and industrial development of India.
  • DIndia has a glorious past, it had 25% share of global economy before arrival of the British
  • EEveryone and I are a part of the universe.Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (Everyone and I are a part of the universe.) Option E is the correct answer as it captures the essence of a good story by emphasizing the theme of universal interconnectedness. A compelling narrative often transcends individual perspectives, fostering a sense of unity and shared experience among diverse individuals. This option implies a broader, inclusive worldview, aligning with the idea that a good story should resonate with the common humanity that connects everyone, highlighting the interconnected nature of individuals and the universe. It reflects a positive and unifying theme, which is a characteristic often associated with powerful and impactful storytelling. Option B emphasizes a national perspective, which might not resonate universally and could be seen as exclusive rather than inclusive. Option C focuses on a specific event and its consequences, lacking the universal and inclusive nature often associated with a broader, impactful narrative. Option A eans towards a pessimistic perspective, lacking the uplifting and unifying qualities typically associated with a good story. Option D highlights a specific historical aspect, but its emphasis on a national achievement may not encompass a universally resonant theme, potentially excluding a global audience.
Q26Reading Comprehension·Inference

Read the following passage and answer the THREE questions that follow. It is harder and harder to make sense of life. Everything is changing, all the time, at a faster and faster pace. Our civilization is struggling to keep up with exponential technology and disruptive change. Our age-old institutions, politics, economics, ethics, religion and laws, even our environment, are so fundamentally challenged, that we risk collapse. Our stories have gotten so divorced from reality, so divisive, so inflexible and so inept to adapt to and explain our present, let alone guide us towards a better future, that we often feel like helpless passengers on a Titanic spaceship Earth. No wonder Aristotle observed that “When the storytelling goes bad in a society, the result is decadence.” But why is this the case? And, perhaps more importantly, how is it that bad storytelling can keep, if not bring, a whole society down? Is that not simply overstating the power of story? Literary theorist Kenneth Burke famously noted: “Stories are equipment for human living. We need storytelling in order to make certain sense out of life.” If that is true then our equipment for living has gone obsolete. And unless we upgrade it we are going to go obsolete too. It was this process that Fred Polak had in mind in 1961 while observing: Any student of the rise and fall of cultures cannot fail to be impressed by the role played in this historical succession by the image of the future. The rise and fall of images precede or accompany the rise and fall of cultures. As long as a society’s image is positive and flourishing, the flower of culture is in full bloom. Once the image begins to decay and lose its vitality, however, the culture does not long survive. That is why we desperately need a new story. A story that will not only help us make sense of the world today but also unite us as a species of human beings. A story that will motivate us to stop bickering and resolve our common problems. A story that will inspire us to achieve our common goals and guide us towards a better future for all sentient beings on our planet. We have to rewrite the human story. Because the old stories that brought us thus far are no longer useful. They’ve lost their vision and grandeur. They’ve become petty and short-sighted. They’re stuck in a past that never was at the expense of a future that can be. They divide us and keep us bickering while our civilization is facing unprecedented diversity and depth of existential challenges. Those stories are not simply our history. They are now our chains. And unless we break them, they will be our death sentence. So, it is worth exploring if or how new stories, good stories can bring us up. The human story that brought us into the 21st century was written and rewritten several times. The latest major update was perhaps during the industrial revolution. It is time to rewrite it again. We need a new story. A brave story. An unreasonable story. A story that can inspire, unite and motivate us to break free from the past and create the best possible future.

Read the following statements: 1. A story without connections and coherence. 2. A story that talks about recreating the past glory. 3. A story may not be factually true. 4. A story that is meaningful and compelling for humanity Which of the above statements can be ASSOCIATED with the meaning of “unreasonable story”, as used in the passage?

  • A1&2
  • B2&3
  • C1&3
  • D2&4
  • E3&4Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (3&4) Statement 3 aligns with the concept of an "unreasonable story" because an unreasonable story may prioritize emotional or symbolic truth over strict factual accuracy. It suggests a departure from conventional or rational narratives, allowing for creative or unconventional interpretations that might not strictly adhere to factual details. Statement 4 is associated with an "unreasonable story" as the passage calls for a new, unreasonable narrative that inspires and unites humanity. An unreasonable story, in this context, goes beyond conventional or predictable narratives and seeks to be compelling in a way that motivates positive action and fosters a sense of shared purpose among diverse individuals. Therefore the correct answer is Option E: 3&4

Decision Making(22 questions)

Q27Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Bharat Business School (BBS), a premier business school, was renowned for the quality education it provided. Its faculty, known for their domain area expertise and excellence in teaching, competed with each other for a better student feedback. Of late, the institute was finding it difficult to upgrade its course content with rapidly changing global business scenario. The difficulties multiplied when the school realized that some of senior faculty would retire on regular basis, starting in the near future. To overcome these difficulties, BBS decided to recruit young faculty in all the departments (e.g., Economics, Finance, Marketing, HRM, Production etc). When the Dean - Academics scanned the applications, she found three distinct types of aspirants viz. (i) A type candidates who were very good teachers, competent at teaching the courses taught by existing faculty members; (ii) B type candidates who were average teachers, competent at creating and teaching new courses that would complement existing courses, taught by the current faculty; (iii) C type candidates were not-so-good teachers, willing to teach any course BBS required. Note1: A course is termed complementary when it covers latest content and complements existing courses offered by a department. Note2: Each department decides the suite of courses to be offered.

Given the above context, which of the following options will be the BEST recruitment decision for BBS?

  • AHire A type candidates unconditionally and allow them to teach courses taught by the existing faculty
  • BHire B type candidates so that all types of courses can be offered to students
  • CHire A type candidates on a condition that they will have to develop complementary courses.Correct answer
  • DHire C type candidates, as they can teach any course
  • EDon’t recruit and request the existing faculty to develop complementary courses

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Hire A type candidates on a condition that they will have to develop complementary courses.) BBS needs strong teaching immediately and also needs new complementary courses. Type A candidates already meet the teaching standard; making course development a condition of appointment addresses the content gap without accepting permanently average or weak teaching. Hiring them unconditionally would not solve the curriculum problem, while the other choices compromise teaching quality or leave the burden with retiring faculty. Therefore C is the best decision.
Q28Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Bharat Business School (BBS), a premier business school, was renowned for the quality education it provided. Its faculty, known for their domain area expertise and excellence in teaching, competed with each other for a better student feedback. Of late, the institute was finding it difficult to upgrade its course content with rapidly changing global business scenario. The difficulties multiplied when the school realized that some of senior faculty would retire on regular basis, starting in the near future. To overcome these difficulties, BBS decided to recruit young faculty in all the departments (e.g., Economics, Finance, Marketing, HRM, Production etc). When the Dean - Academics scanned the applications, she found three distinct types of aspirants viz. (i) A type candidates who were very good teachers, competent at teaching the courses taught by existing faculty members; (ii) B type candidates who were average teachers, competent at creating and teaching new courses that would complement existing courses, taught by the current faculty; (iii) C type candidates were not-so-good teachers, willing to teach any course BBS required. Note1: A course is termed complementary when it covers latest content and complements existing courses offered by a department. Note2: Each department decides the suite of courses to be offered.

Suppose the Dean - Academics wanted to reduce future conflicts and political manoeuvring to ensure harmony among faculty. Which of the following options will BEST reduce conflicts and politicking amongst the faculty?

  • AHire A type candidates, and let the new as well as existing faculty offer same courses
  • BHire B type candidates to teach complementary coursesCorrect answer
  • CHire A type candidates to teach existing courses and ask existing faculty to teach new courses
  • DHire C type candidates and allow them to teach all types of courses
  • EHire B type candidates and allow them to teach all kinds of courses

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Hire B type candidates to teach complementary courses) The correct option is B because it focuses on complementary courses, reducing direct competition and fostering collaboration between new and existing faculty members. It strikes a balance between maintaining the strengths of the current faculty and introducing innovation through new hires, thereby minimizing conflicts and politicking. Option D is not correct because they are described as not-so-good teachers. Allowing them to teach all types of courses may compromise the overall quality of education, potentially leading to dissatisfaction among students and conflicts within the faculty. Option C is not the most suitable option because while it maintains the excellence of existing courses by assigning A type candidates to teach them. However, it may face resistance from existing faculty members who might not be comfortable or interested in teaching new courses. This approach may lead to conflicts and challenges in implementing changes smoothly. Option A is not correct because it creates a scenario where new A type candidates and existing faculty members are offering the same courses. This can potentially lead to conflicts and political maneuvering as faculty members compete for teaching assignments and student attention. The direct competition may hinder collaboration and harmony among the faculty. Option E is incorrect B type candidates are described as average teachers but competent in creating and teaching new courses that complement existing ones. Allowing them to teach all kinds of courses, including existing ones, might not leverage their strengths effectively, potentially leading to a compromise in the quality of education for existing courses.
Q29Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Bharat Business School (BBS), a premier business school, was renowned for the quality education it provided. Its faculty, known for their domain area expertise and excellence in teaching, competed with each other for a better student feedback. Of late, the institute was finding it difficult to upgrade its course content with rapidly changing global business scenario. The difficulties multiplied when the school realized that some of senior faculty would retire on regular basis, starting in the near future. To overcome these difficulties, BBS decided to recruit young faculty in all the departments (e.g., Economics, Finance, Marketing, HRM, Production etc). When the Dean - Academics scanned the applications, she found three distinct types of aspirants viz. (i) A type candidates who were very good teachers, competent at teaching the courses taught by existing faculty members; (ii) B type candidates who were average teachers, competent at creating and teaching new courses that would complement existing courses, taught by the current faculty; (iii) C type candidates were not-so-good teachers, willing to teach any course BBS required. Note1: A course is termed complementary when it covers latest content and complements existing courses offered by a department. Note2: Each department decides the suite of courses to be offered.

Suppose the Dean-Academics wanted to ensure the most efficient utilization of faculty resources. Which of the following hiring decisions will ensure the MOST efficient utilization of faculty resources?

  • AHire A type candidates and let the new as well as existing faculty teach same courses
  • BHire B type candidates to teach complementary courses
  • CHire A type candidates, capable of developing complementary coursesCorrect answer
  • DHire C type candidates and assign them teaching-assistant responsibilities
  • EAsk existing faculty to develop complementary courses

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Hire A type candidates, capable of developing complementary courses) Option C is the most efficient choice by combining the teaching excellence of A type candidates with their capability to develop complementary courses, ensuring a well-rounded and resource-efficient approach. Option A is incorrect because it may result in redundancy, as both new A type candidates and existing faculty members would be teaching the same courses. It can lead to inefficient resource allocation and potential competition for teaching assignments. Option B is not the most efficient because B type candidates are average teachers but competent in creating and teaching new courses. Hiring them exclusively for complementary courses might not efficiently utilize their skills in teaching existing courses. Option E is not the correct answer because the existing faculty members may not have the expertise or inclination to develop complementary courses. This approach might lead to inefficiencies in course development and potentially compromise the quality of new courses. Option D is incorrect because C type candidates, described as not-so-good teachers, may not be the best fit for teaching-assistant responsibilities. This option may result in challenges in maintaining teaching quality and efficient utilization of faculty resources. The correct option is C
Q30Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Dhan, a poor but enterprising 15-year-old, resided in the world’s largest slum in a metropolitan city, along with her widowed mother. The densely packed slum housed about a million people, mostly in rickety one room tenements, connected by labyrinthine lanes and by-lanes. Dhan’s mother worked intermittently as a daily wager in a small savoury factory. For a 15-year-old, Dhan’s life was hectic. She spends two hours every day in fetching water for the household, packing breakfast and lunch for her mother. In addition, she had to prepare supper. On her mother’s insistence, Dhan also attended an evening bridge school run by an NGO. Dhan’s dream was to provide a comfortable life to her mother and take her family out of poverty. Of late, Dhan observed that the customers to a nearby tea-cum-savoury stall (TCS), were mostly the slum dwellers, who thronged the stall for its low prices and lack of alternatives. Further, Dhan gathered that the TCS could not cater to all of its customers, and the owner still made a neat Rs.800 profit per day. Dhan saw that a probable first step towards her family’s economic independence could be to own her own TCS.

From the following, choose the BEST option that will increase Dhan’s chances of realising her dream of starting a venture?

  • AStop going to the bridge school
  • BRequest mother to pack her own breakfast and lunch
  • CRequest mother to fetch water for the household
  • DHire someone at Rs.10 per day to fetch water for the household
  • ERequest mother to stop working and be a partner in the new ventureCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (Request mother to stop working and be a partner in the new venture) Dhan’s binding constraints are time, adult support and operating capacity. Her mother’s intermittent wage work offers uncertain income, whereas the nearby stall demonstrates unmet demand and a profit of ₹800 per day. Bringing her mother into the venture releases Dhan from some household and production duties, adds an adult partner for purchasing and customer-facing work, and lets both coordinate around one income-generating activity. Hence, E most directly converts existing family effort into venture capacity while preserving Dhan’s education. A sacrifices bridge school and weakens Dhan’s long-term prospects. B and C merely transfer individual chores to a mother who already works; neither creates a dependable operating team. D saves two hours cheaply, but the quoted ₹10 arrangement may be unrealistic and still does not provide help in running the stall. Therefore, among the choices, partnership with her mother offers the strongest route to starting and sustaining the TCS.
Q31Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Dhan, a poor but enterprising 15-year-old, resided in the world’s largest slum in a metropolitan city, along with her widowed mother. The densely packed slum housed about a million people, mostly in rickety one room tenements, connected by labyrinthine lanes and by-lanes. Dhan’s mother worked intermittently as a daily wager in a small savoury factory. For a 15-year-old, Dhan’s life was hectic. She spends two hours every day in fetching water for the household, packing breakfast and lunch for her mother. In addition, she had to prepare supper. On her mother’s insistence, Dhan also attended an evening bridge school run by an NGO. Dhan’s dream was to provide a comfortable life to her mother and take her family out of poverty. Of late, Dhan observed that the customers to a nearby tea-cum-savoury stall (TCS), were mostly the slum dwellers, who thronged the stall for its low prices and lack of alternatives. Further, Dhan gathered that the TCS could not cater to all of its customers, and the owner still made a neat Rs.800 profit per day. Dhan saw that a probable first step towards her family’s economic independence could be to own her own TCS.

Within two years of establishment, Dhan’s TCS is not only outcompeting its nearest rivals in the slum but has also earned a goodwill for the quality and taste of its products. Hence, it has become famous within the slum as “Dhan Dhana Dhan” brand. Dhan now aspires to expand the reach of her savouries into the metropolitan region. Dhan wishes to scale up her savoury production from 100 kg to 1000 kg per day while maintaining quality. Dhan realizes that her establishment does not have the space for expansion on its own.

Which of the following options will BEST help Dhan to scale up production with least investment, tightly control quality, and also protect her business interests?

  • AOutsource the production, along with secret recipes, to a mass savoury production unit outside the slum
  • BBuy additional space within the slum and establish own manufacturing unit
  • CProvide the savoury dough and preparation instructions to 100 willing women in the slum and co-opt them as business partnersCorrect answer
  • DStop catering to the slum dwellers and start serving the metropolitan region exclusively
  • ELease space in the metropolitan region and establish a manufacturing unit of TCS

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Provide the savoury dough and preparation instructions to 100 willing women in the slum and co-opt them as business partners) Dhan needs ten times the production capacity with little capital, while retaining influence over the recipe and process. Supplying standardized dough and instructions lets many local partners produce in parallel without Dhan buying or leasing a large factory. Co-opting them as business partners also aligns their interest with the brand and gives Dhan a direct basis for setting production and quality standards. Therefore C best satisfies all three conditions together. Outsourcing the recipe to an unrelated producer risks confidentiality and control. Buying or leasing a dedicated unit requires substantially more capital. Abandoning the existing slum market neither creates capacity nor protects the goodwill already earned.
Q32Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Dhan, a poor but enterprising 15-year-old, resided in the world’s largest slum in a metropolitan city, along with her widowed mother. The densely packed slum housed about a million people, mostly in rickety one room tenements, connected by labyrinthine lanes and by-lanes. Dhan’s mother worked intermittently as a daily wager in a small savoury factory. For a 15-year-old, Dhan’s life was hectic. She spends two hours every day in fetching water for the household, packing breakfast and lunch for her mother. In addition, she had to prepare supper. On her mother’s insistence, Dhan also attended an evening bridge school run by an NGO. Dhan’s dream was to provide a comfortable life to her mother and take her family out of poverty. Of late, Dhan observed that the customers to a nearby tea-cum-savoury stall (TCS), were mostly the slum dwellers, who thronged the stall for its low prices and lack of alternatives. Further, Dhan gathered that the TCS could not cater to all of its customers, and the owner still made a neat Rs.800 profit per day. Dhan saw that a probable first step towards her family’s economic independence could be to own her own TCS.

Dhan with her ingenuity finds a way to scale up her production capacity on her own terms. Though Dhan’s TCS has become the famous “Dhan Dhana Dhan” brand within the slum, it is still unknown to the outside world. Thus, Dhan embarks on the next challenge of creating a market for savouries amongst the masses in the metropolitan region. From the following, choose the BEST option that will help Dhan to sell her products, at the lowest price, to a maximum number of metropolitan customers?

  • AOverwhelm the metropolitan residents with digital advertisements on Instagram.
  • BHire a celebrity who currently endorses a diamond jewellery brand to endorse the “Dhan Dhana Dhand” brand
  • CReach out to the malls and high-end retail stores in the metropolitan region through a few marketing executives to sell the products
  • DEngage slum dwellers commuting daily to metropolitan region for work, to sell the products on commission basisCorrect answer
  • EHire a few sales executives to sell products of Dhan Dhana Dhan brand

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Engage slum dwellers commuting daily to metropolitan region for work, to sell the products on commission basis) The commuters already travel from the slum to many parts of the metropolitan region. Using that existing movement gives Dhan a distributed sales network without paying for stores, a celebrity campaign, or a large salaried sales force. Commission is incurred only when a sale occurs, which helps keep the selling cost and customer price low while reaching many neighbourhoods. Hence D best matches both reach and price. Digital or celebrity advertising adds cost without guaranteeing physical availability. High-end stores do not target the widest price-sensitive market, while a small conventional sales team has much narrower coverage than the commuter network.
Q33Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. In recent years, complaints of sexual harassment at “Fair Consulting” had increased exponentially. Fair Consulting had a gender-neutral, anti-sexual harassment policy and a committee to adjudicate on complaints. During the hearing of complaints, allegations and counter-allegations would fly thick and fast. This made it difficult for the adjudicating committee to conclusively decide on the complaints.

Fair Consulting was mulling over three interventions to reduce sexual harassment cases in the workplace. They are: 1. Educate employees about the company’s anti-sexual harassment policy 2. Profile employees with a propensity to engage in acts of sexual harassment 3. Discipline sexual offenders Which of the following options will the employees find LEAST ostracizing?

  • A1 OnlyCorrect answer
  • B2 Only
  • C3 Only
  • D1 & 2
  • E2 & 3

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (1 Only) Educating employees about the company's anti-sexual harassment policy (Option 1) is likely to be the least ostracizing as it focuses on providing information and awareness rather than singling out individuals or taking disciplinary action. This approach promotes a broader understanding of the policy and encourages a preventive approach to reduce sexual harassment cases without directly targeting specific employees. Option 2 could be perceived as stigmatizing and invasive, potentially leading to a sense of ostracization among employees. Option 3 involves punitive measures and might be perceived as ostracizing without a preventive or educational component. Therefore Option A is the correct answer.
Q34Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. In recent years, complaints of sexual harassment at “Fair Consulting” had increased exponentially. Fair Consulting had a gender-neutral, anti-sexual harassment policy and a committee to adjudicate on complaints. During the hearing of complaints, allegations and counter-allegations would fly thick and fast. This made it difficult for the adjudicating committee to conclusively decide on the complaints.

The CEO of Fair Consulting wanted the adjudicating committee to reduce the number of errors while deciding on sexual harassment complaints. The employees suggested that the committee could do the following to reduce errors in judgment. 1. Listen to the arguments of both the complainant and the accused together 2. Listen to the arguments of both the complainant and the accused separately 3. Involve a member of women’s commission 4. Take the help of a retired judge 5. Hire a forensic expert to verify evidences From the following, choose the MOST effective sequence that would help the committee to arrive at the right decision.

  • A2, 1 ,5Correct answer
  • B2, 4, 1
  • C2, 3, 4
  • D1, 2, 4
  • E1, 2, 3

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (2, 1 ,5) Option A is an effective sequence for the adjudicating committee to reduce errors in judgment in sexual harassment complaints 2: This step allows the committee to gather individual perspectives without potential influence from the other party, ensuring a thorough understanding of each side of the story. 1: Bringing both parties together after listening to them separately fosters a collaborative discussion. It provides an opportunity for clarification, cross-examination, and a more comprehensive view of the case, potentially uncovering additional information or nuances. 5: Introducing a forensic expert at this stage enhances the committee's ability to objectively assess evidence. The forensic expert can provide a specialized analysis, helping to verify or challenge the credibility of the presented evidence. This sequence combines individual perspectives, collaborative discussions, and expert analysis, aiming to minimize errors by ensuring a comprehensive and well-informed decision-making process.
Q35Decision Making·Policy & Governance

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. In recent years, complaints of sexual harassment at “Fair Consulting” had increased exponentially. Fair Consulting had a gender-neutral, anti-sexual harassment policy and a committee to adjudicate on complaints. During the hearing of complaints, allegations and counter-allegations would fly thick and fast. This made it difficult for the adjudicating committee to conclusively decide on the complaints.

Of late, the adjudicating committee received a complaint from a junior female consultant. Her immediate boss cracked a bawdy joke about her in the office tuck shop. When the committee probed the alleged misconduct, they identified an independent witness. She agreed to give her testimony to the committee: however, she was unsure if she would like to be identified either by the complainant or the accused. The convenor of the committee was confused about the stance to be taken on the witness’s concern.

Which of the following will be the BEST stance to be taken by the convenor?

  • AThe convenor should not let witness’s identity be revealed as it might expose her to a threat either from the respondent or the accused.Correct answer
  • BThe convenor should ensure that the witness identifies herself because both the accused and the complainant must identify themselves.
  • CThe convenor should ensure that witness identify herself as it will ensure that she will not present frivolous proof related to the inquiry.
  • DThe convenor should not allow witness’s identity to be revealed because complainant can sabotage the inquiry process.
  • EThe convenor should not allow witness’s identity to be revealed as either the accused or the complainant can use the witness’s arguments to their advantage.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (The convenor should not let witness’s identity be revealed as it might expose her to a threat either from the respondent or the accused.) Option A is the correct answer, as it prioritises the safety and well-being of the witness by keeping her identity confidential. Protecting the witness from potential threats or harm ensures a more secure environment for providing testimony. It acknowledges the sensitivity of the situation and aims to create a protective space for individuals who come forward to give their accounts. Option B doesn't consider potential safety concerns and may discourage truthful testimony. Option C overlooks the importance of protecting the witness and may create an unsafe environment. Option E doesn't prioritize the witness's safety and well-being. Option D doesn't justify compromising the witness's safety or the integrity of the inquiry process.
Q36Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. During the floods of 2018-2019, a group of philanthropists led by Niyabuddin, wished to open free food centre for the needy. Their motto was that “no human should be hungry.” Nothing gives more satisfaction to the philanthropists than to see the hungry eat to the fullest. Post Covid-19, the group started a food centre by the name Win Borne Life Care Food (WBLCF) in a small town called Palakkad. The centre started gaining popularity as the number of people enjoying free meals increased over time. Initially, WBLCF offered a standardized menu consisting of idli, upma, puttu for breakfast, curd rice for lunch, and idli or upma for supper. Six women were employed by WBLCF to prepare all the meals. As the number of diners increased, they started expecting a variety in the menu. At WBLCF, not all the diners eat "free": while two-thirds of diners get free food, one-third would donate some amount to a transparent charity box kept at the entrance. For example, a man donated Rs. 500 after consuming two idlis, and a woman approached Niyabuddin and inquired about donating 10 kilogrammes of rice. Those who could not afford to donate, were often seen prostrating worshipfully in front of the charity box. Some caring individuals made monetary donation while others donated rice, fruits and vegetables to WBLCF. Further, the centre received enquiries from many locals on how they could contribute to the cause. As the centre was lauded for its philanthropic work by people of the town, Niyabuddin intended to replicate the initiative in the nearby districts. However, he is concerned about the cost that goes into running the centre. Almost 75 percent of the donated amount goes into buying the cooking ingredients, while the rest goes into paying salaries, operations and maintenance costs.

From the following, choose the MOST important challenge that Niyabuddin has to overcome to sustain WBLCF.

  • AGetting enough finances and donationsCorrect answer
  • BHaving enough cooks and employees
  • CPaying salaries to employees
  • DAttracting enough diners
  • EPreparing only local dishes for diners

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Getting enough finances and donations) The correct option is A because the success of the food center heavily relies on having sufficient funds to cover the costs of ingredients, salaries, operations, and maintenance. Without an adequate financial foundation, WBLCF may struggle to continue its philanthropic work and expand to nearby districts. Paying salaries, attracting diners, having enough cooks, and offering local dishes are all interconnected challenges that can be addressed more effectively with a robust financial base. Option C is not the most critical because while paying salaries is crucial for retaining dedicated employees, it is a component of the overall financial challenge. If there are not enough finances to cover salaries, it becomes a subset of the broader issue of obtaining adequate funds and donations. Option D is not the most critical one because while attracting diners is essential for the success of the food center, but it's not the primary challenge. Even if there are many diners, the initiative's sustainability depends on having the necessary financial resources to continue providing free meals. Option B is not correct because having enough cooks and employees is an operational challenge but can be addressed within the broader context of financial stability. If there are sufficient funds, hiring and retaining staff becomes more manageable. Option E is not crucial because while offering variety in the menu may be a desire expressed by diners, it is not as critical as ensuring the financial sustainability of the food center. Menu diversification can be considered once the core financial challenges are addressed. The correct option is A
Q37Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. During the floods of 2018-2019, a group of philanthropists led by Niyabuddin, wished to open free food centre for the needy. Their motto was that “no human should be hungry.” Nothing gives more satisfaction to the philanthropists than to see the hungry eat to the fullest. Post Covid-19, the group started a food centre by the name Win Borne Life Care Food (WBLCF) in a small town called Palakkad. The centre started gaining popularity as the number of people enjoying free meals increased over time. Initially, WBLCF offered a standardized menu consisting of idli, upma, puttu for breakfast, curd rice for lunch, and idli or upma for supper. Six women were employed by WBLCF to prepare all the meals. As the number of diners increased, they started expecting a variety in the menu. At WBLCF, not all the diners eat "free": while two-thirds of diners get free food, one-third would donate some amount to a transparent charity box kept at the entrance. For example, a man donated Rs. 500 after consuming two idlis, and a woman approached Niyabuddin and inquired about donating 10 kilogrammes of rice. Those who could not afford to donate, were often seen prostrating worshipfully in front of the charity box. Some caring individuals made monetary donation while others donated rice, fruits and vegetables to WBLCF. Further, the centre received enquiries from many locals on how they could contribute to the cause. As the centre was lauded for its philanthropic work by people of the town, Niyabuddin intended to replicate the initiative in the nearby districts. However, he is concerned about the cost that goes into running the centre. Almost 75 percent of the donated amount goes into buying the cooking ingredients, while the rest goes into paying salaries, operations and maintenance costs.

Niyabuddin realised that on some days the food was wasted while on other days diners went back hungry. He sought advice from a consultant friend on how to reduce wastage. The consultant suggested the following: 1. Launch a mobile app so that diners can pre-inform their arrival to WBLCF. 2. Ask diners who enjoy free meal to distribute excess food to hungry on streets 3. Ask diners to eat less as it is good for health 4. Preach people to eat less 5. Ration amount of food to be served to the diners Which of the above ideas will not be consistent with the core ethos of WBLCF?

  • A1, 2 & 3
  • B2, 3 & 4
  • C1, 3 & 4
  • D2, 3 & 5
  • E3, 4 & 5Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (3, 4 & 5) The correct option is E. Suggestion 3 goes against the core ethos of WBLCF, which focuses on providing meals to the needy without imposing restrictions on their food intake. Encouraging diners to eat less may contradict the principle of ensuring that everyone has enough to eat. Suggestion 4 is similar to Suggestion 3. Preaching people to eat less is not aligned with the ethos of WBLCF, which is centered around addressing hunger rather than promoting dietary restrictions. Suggestion 5 may also contradict the mission of WBLCF. While rationing may be a practical approach to reduce wastage, it could conflict with the principle of providing enough food for those who are hungry. Imposing strict limits on the amount of food served may contradict the mission of ensuring that "no human should be hungry."
Q38Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. During the floods of 2018-2019, a group of philanthropists led by Niyabuddin, wished to open free food centre for the needy. Their motto was that “no human should be hungry.” Nothing gives more satisfaction to the philanthropists than to see the hungry eat to the fullest. Post Covid-19, the group started a food centre by the name Win Borne Life Care Food (WBLCF) in a small town called Palakkad. The centre started gaining popularity as the number of people enjoying free meals increased over time. Initially, WBLCF offered a standardized menu consisting of idli, upma, puttu for breakfast, curd rice for lunch, and idli or upma for supper. Six women were employed by WBLCF to prepare all the meals. As the number of diners increased, they started expecting a variety in the menu. At WBLCF, not all the diners eat "free": while two-thirds of diners get free food, one-third would donate some amount to a transparent charity box kept at the entrance. For example, a man donated Rs. 500 after consuming two idlis, and a woman approached Niyabuddin and inquired about donating 10 kilogrammes of rice. Those who could not afford to donate, were often seen prostrating worshipfully in front of the charity box. Some caring individuals made monetary donation while others donated rice, fruits and vegetables to WBLCF. Further, the centre received enquiries from many locals on how they could contribute to the cause. As the centre was lauded for its philanthropic work by people of the town, Niyabuddin intended to replicate the initiative in the nearby districts. However, he is concerned about the cost that goes into running the centre. Almost 75 percent of the donated amount goes into buying the cooking ingredients, while the rest goes into paying salaries, operations and maintenance costs.

Niyabuddin wanted to conserve local recipes that can be used to prepare mouth-smacking dishes for the diners. Which of the following could be the BEST way to conserve local recipes?

  • ATie-up with the chef of the best restaurant in Palakkad to document recipes
  • BRequest a lady once a week in Palakkad to cook food at WBLCF on voluntary basis and document the recipes
  • CHold a weekly competition for the best local dish and get it judged and documented by local volunteersCorrect answer
  • DAsk free diners to contribute towards one recipe for a dish and give them the responsibility to document it
  • ETie up with one of food delivery partners to help them document the recipes

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Hold a weekly competition for the best local dish and get it judged and documented by local volunteers) Option C is the best choice because it combines community engagement, local volunteers, a judging process, and a regular competition, providing a holistic and inclusive approach to conserving local recipes while aligning with the ethos of WBLCF. Option B is not correct because while this involves individuals from the community, it may not capture a diverse range of local recipes. Relying on one person per week may not be sufficient to document a wide variety of dishes. Option E is not correct because food delivery partners may not prioritize the documentation of local recipes, and their primary focus is on delivering food. The documentation process may not be as comprehensive or community-oriented as in option C. Option A is incorrect because while a professional chef can provide expertise, this approach may not involve a broad representation of the local community. Additionally, restaurant recipes may differ from traditional home-cooked dishes that WBLCF aims to conserve. Option D is not correct because while involving diners is a good idea, relying solely on them may not ensure a systematic and consistent approach to documentation. It may also exclude non-diners who may hold valuable knowledge about local recipes. The correct option is C
Q39Decision Making·Data-based Decision

Go through the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. To prepare a dish (e.g., Dosa- Sambhar, Idli-chutney, Rajma-Chawal, Mawa-Bati), the chef has to finish nine activities, some of which could be done simultaneously, while others could not be done simultaneously. One of the challenges faced by the chef was to precisely calculate the preparation time of a dish and communicate the waiting time to the customers. However, based on the past data, the chef had an idea about approximate time taken to complete each activity. He had noted down the best (optimistic), worst (pessimistic) and most likely (most commonly observed) time to finish each of the nine activities. Further, the chef realised that frequency of occurrence of most likely time was 66.666%, and the frequency of occurrence of pessimistic and optimistic times were 16.666% each. The table below shows the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely times for each activity. Time is indicated in minutes.

Activity dependency network for cooking activities A through I
ActivityOptimistic (16.666%)Pessimistic (16.666%)Most likely (66.666%)
A111
B233
C101312
D555
E364
F111
G5107
H91310
I555

The expected time to prepare the dish is the weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic and most likely time. Which of the following is the expected wait time for the chef to communicate to the customers?

  • AApprox. 47.3
  • BApprox. 22.0
  • CApprox. 32.3Correct answer
  • DApprox. 40.0
  • EApprox. 51.0

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Approx. 32.3) Expected activity time is optimistic + pessimistic + 4 × most likely6. The two complete paths are A–B–D–F–G–I and A–C–E–H–I. Their expected durations are 22 minutes and 1 + 716 + 256 + 626 + 5 = 32⅓ minutes. Activities on parallel branches are not added together, so the expected wait is approximately 32.3 minutes.
Q40Decision Making·Data-based Decision

Go through the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. To prepare a dish (e.g., Dosa- Sambhar, Idli-chutney, Rajma-Chawal, Mawa-Bati), the chef has to finish nine activities, some of which could be done simultaneously, while others could not be done simultaneously. One of the challenges faced by the chef was to precisely calculate the preparation time of a dish and communicate the waiting time to the customers. However, based on the past data, the chef had an idea about approximate time taken to complete each activity. He had noted down the best (optimistic), worst (pessimistic) and most likely (most commonly observed) time to finish each of the nine activities. Further, the chef realised that frequency of occurrence of most likely time was 66.666%, and the frequency of occurrence of pessimistic and optimistic times were 16.666% each. The table below shows the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely times for each activity. Time is indicated in minutes.

Activity dependency network for cooking activities A through I
ActivityOptimistic (16.666%)Pessimistic (16.666%)Most likely (66.666%)
A111
B233
C101312
D555
E364
F111
G5107
H91310
I555

Customer dissatisfaction is the difference of actual waiting time (AWT) and expected waiting time (EWT). AWT is the actual time spent by customer before being served the dish. EWT of the customer is the time communicated by the chef. What is the minimum waiting time (EWT) that the chef should communicate to minimise customer dissatisfaction?

  • A33
  • B38Correct answer
  • C42
  • D40
  • E35

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (38) To prevent positive dissatisfaction under the worst realization, use pessimistic activity times on each path. A–B–D–F–G–I takes 25 minutes; A–C–E–H–I takes 1+13+6+13+5=38 minutes. The dish cannot finish before its slower branch, so the minimum communicated time is 38.
Q41Decision Making·Data-based Decision

Go through the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. To prepare a dish (e.g., Dosa- Sambhar, Idli-chutney, Rajma-Chawal, Mawa-Bati), the chef has to finish nine activities, some of which could be done simultaneously, while others could not be done simultaneously. One of the challenges faced by the chef was to precisely calculate the preparation time of a dish and communicate the waiting time to the customers. However, based on the past data, the chef had an idea about approximate time taken to complete each activity. He had noted down the best (optimistic), worst (pessimistic) and most likely (most commonly observed) time to finish each of the nine activities. Further, the chef realised that frequency of occurrence of most likely time was 66.666%, and the frequency of occurrence of pessimistic and optimistic times were 16.666% each. The table below shows the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely times for each activity. Time is indicated in minutes.

Activity dependency network for cooking activities A through I
ActivityOptimistic (16.666%)Pessimistic (16.666%)Most likely (66.666%)
A111
B233
C101312
D555
E364
F111
G5107
H91310
I555

Which of the following is the MOST volatile activity for the chef?

  • AB
  • BC
  • CE
  • DGCorrect answer
  • EH

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (G) Compare pessimistic minus optimistic time for the listed activities: B=1, C=3, E=3, G=5 and H=4 minutes. G has the widest range and is therefore the most volatile.
Q42Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Arti, CEO of an FMCG company, was under pressure from the Board of Governors (BoG) to increase diversity in the workforce. The board wanted the company to hire candidates with vision impairment*, as it believed that they contributed to organizations in many unique ways. The CEO was apprehensive of hiring visually impaired candidates; she was not sure about the feasibility of accommodating them in the current setting. Moreover, Arti was unsure as to how the visually impaired could contribute meaningfully to the organization. (* A person, with a vision impairment in a range of 60-100 percent, is referred to as a visually impaired person. A person with 100 percent vision impairment cannot see at all.)

The following arguments were presented to Arti about the candidates with vision impairment: 1.Visually impaired can do some activities better than the normal people and hence complement other employees. 2.Visually impaired can motivate other employees to work harder. 3. Visually impaired can act as a role model for other disadvantaged people in the society 4. Visually impaired can work harder to prove themselves 5. Hiring visually impaired people may enhance organizational reputation which may consequently lead to better sales. 6. Visually impaired have to be paid 20 percent extra salary. From the above arguments,

which of the following options indicate that CEO’s apprehensions are misplaced?

  • A1,2,3,4 Only
  • B1,2,4,6 Only
  • C1,2,4,5 Only
  • D1,2,3,4,5 OnlyCorrect answer
  • E1,2,3,4,5&6

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (1,2,3,4,5 Only) Statements 1–5 each give a reason the CEO could view employing visually impaired people positively: complementary skills, workforce motivation, social example, determination, and reputational benefit. Statement 6 instead raises an additional accommodation cost and therefore supports the apprehension rather than overcoming it. The applicable set is 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only.
Q43Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Arti, CEO of an FMCG company, was under pressure from the Board of Governors (BoG) to increase diversity in the workforce. The board wanted the company to hire candidates with vision impairment*, as it believed that they contributed to organizations in many unique ways. The CEO was apprehensive of hiring visually impaired candidates; she was not sure about the feasibility of accommodating them in the current setting. Moreover, Arti was unsure as to how the visually impaired could contribute meaningfully to the organization. (* A person, with a vision impairment in a range of 60-100 percent, is referred to as a visually impaired person. A person with 100 percent vision impairment cannot see at all.)

Arti wanted to follow the suggestion given by the Board of Governors; however, she was not sure if the company was ready to accommodate candidates with 100 percent visual impairment. Also, the concern of involving such employees in meaningful activities was constantly bothering her. Hence, she constituted a committee to come up with recommendations that would help the company in hiring 100 percent visually impaired employees After two months of deliberations, the committee came up with the following recommendations: 1. Hire visually impaired employees unconditionally as it is any company’s social responsibility 2. Hire visually impaired employees in the activities they can contribute 3. Ensure visually impaired friendly office space, food courts, restrooms, parking etc. 4. Allow guide dogs to assist employees with 100 percent vision impairment in the office premises

Which of the following options will BEST allay concerns as well as be fair to all stakeholders?

  • A1 & 3 Only
  • B3 & 4 Only
  • C1, 3 & 4 Only
  • D1, 2 & 3 Only
  • E2, 3 & 4 OnlyCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (2, 3 & 4 Only) Recommendation 2 assigns work according to ability, which makes the employment meaningful. Recommendation 3 provides accessible workplace infrastructure, and recommendation 4 permits guide dogs for employees who need them. Together these address role fit, access and independence. Recommendation 1 is excluded because it does not provide the same direct, practical support. Hence 2, 3 and 4 only.
Q44Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the THREE questions that follow. Arti, CEO of an FMCG company, was under pressure from the Board of Governors (BoG) to increase diversity in the workforce. The board wanted the company to hire candidates with vision impairment*, as it believed that they contributed to organizations in many unique ways. The CEO was apprehensive of hiring visually impaired candidates; she was not sure about the feasibility of accommodating them in the current setting. Moreover, Arti was unsure as to how the visually impaired could contribute meaningfully to the organization. (* A person, with a vision impairment in a range of 60-100 percent, is referred to as a visually impaired person. A person with 100 percent vision impairment cannot see at all.)

Suresh refuses to be served coffee by visually impaired baristas, but he does believe in donating to the visually impaired. The following statements could explain why Suresh does not want to be served by visually impaired baristas. 1. He thinks that visually impaired are inefficient at serving coffee. 2. His parents have taught him to donate, instead of accepting services from challenged individuals. 3. He believes that his refusal to be served will have adverse consequences. 4. He feels joyous amongst visually impaired; sharing his life and caring for them. From the following, choose the option that BEST explains Suresh’s biased behaviour.

  • A1,2 OnlyCorrect answer
  • B1,3,4 Only
  • C1,2,4 Only
  • D1,2,3,4
  • E2,3,4 Only

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (1,2 Only) Statement 1 supplies the stereotype that visually impaired workers may be inefficient, while statement 2 explains a charity-oriented upbringing that can make Suresh more comfortable donating than receiving service from them. Statement 3 is too vague to explain the specific refusal, and statement 4 describes joy in interacting with visually impaired people, which runs against the stated bias. Therefore only 1 and 2 explain his behaviour.
Q45Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the TWO questions that follow. The CEO of the Jamshedpur Tea Factory (JTF) was in a quandary over employees skipping work. It was becoming increasingly difficult for him to identify employees who faked illness to skip work. The work of the employees was complex and intricate, and they had to report to eight supervisors. “Faking illness” made it difficult for JTF to judiciously decide on “Promotion” and “Training” of employees. An employee could only be promoted on the completion of a multi-skilling training program. Further, to be nominated for the training program, an employee must be recommended by a minimum of six supervisors. JTF wanted to promote only sincere and deserving employees.

The CEO was thinking of changing the policy regarding leave, training & promotion. Which of the following will be the MOST efficient course of action for JTF and yet be fair to the employees?

  • ALet supervisors decide on the leave of an employee.
  • BLet the CEO office decide on the leave as well as promotions.
  • CLet the CEO office decide on promotion but each supervisor will decide on the leave.
  • DLet the CEO office decide on leave but supervisors will recommend promotions.Correct answer
  • ELet status quo continue

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Let the CEO office decide on leave but supervisors will recommend promotions.) Option D is the correct answer because it strikes a balance between centralized control and decentralized input. Allowing the CEO office to decide on leave ensures consistency and fairness in leave policies, preventing individual supervisors from making subjective decisions. On the other hand, involving supervisors in recommending promotions utilizes their insights into individual employee performance, dedication, and suitability for multi-skilling training. This dual approach ensures that decisions on leave and promotions are well-informed, fair, and consider both the broader organizational perspective and the specific performance at the supervisor level. Option A: Leaves and promotions require different considerations, and leaving both to supervisors may lack consistency. Option C: Centralizing promotion decisions with the CEO office and delegating leave decisions to supervisors may lead to inconsistencies and lack of coordination. Option B: Complete centralization of leave and promotion decisions may not consider the nuanced understanding supervisors have of individual employee performance. Option E: Maintaining the status quo may not address the challenges of identifying employees faking illness and may not ensure fair promotions.
Q46Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the TWO questions that follow. The CEO of the Jamshedpur Tea Factory (JTF) was in a quandary over employees skipping work. It was becoming increasingly difficult for him to identify employees who faked illness to skip work. The work of the employees was complex and intricate, and they had to report to eight supervisors. “Faking illness” made it difficult for JTF to judiciously decide on “Promotion” and “Training” of employees. An employee could only be promoted on the completion of a multi-skilling training program. Further, to be nominated for the training program, an employee must be recommended by a minimum of six supervisors. JTF wanted to promote only sincere and deserving employees.

Which of the following policies will be MOST prone to error while selecting deserving and sincere employees?

  • AOutsource all leave decisions to a doctor whose judgment will be final
  • BLet the CEO office decide on the leave as well as promotions.
  • CLet the CEO office decide on promotions but supervisors will decide on the leave.Correct answer
  • DLet the CEO office decide on leave but supervisors will recommend the promotion.
  • EOutsource all leave decisions to a lawyer whose judgement will be final

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Let the CEO office decide on promotions but supervisors will decide on the leave.) Option C is the most prone to error because it allows supervisors to decide on leave. This introduces the risk of favoritism, biases, or inconsistencies in granting leave, potentially affecting employees' chances of promotion. Supervisors may be influenced by personal relationships or subjective judgments, leading to a less fair and objective evaluation process.
Q47Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the TWO questions that follow. Moonlighting is the practice of working for one organisation while also accepting additional responsibilities and jobs, typically without the employer's knowledge in another organization. It is named as such because it is typically performed at night or on the weekends. “Doing two remote jobs at once was already happening; it was the biggest open secret out there in tech,” said a US techie. Due to weaker margins, major Indian IT companies such as Infosys, TCS, and Wipro announced that they would delay, postpone, or reduce variable pay-outs to employees for the first quarter of fiscal year 2023. This drew attention to Moonlighting. The Indian IT industry was divided on the issue of Moonlighting. Some considered it unethical, while others viewed it as an urgent necessity. Infozeta Chairman Patrick's stance on this matter was crystal clear. "There is a great deal of talk about people working part-time in the tech industry. This is cheating, pure and simple," he had tweeted. However, McMillan, CEO of Betauniverse, does not consider Moonlighting as "cheating.“. “Employment is a contract between an employer who pays me for working 'n' number of hours per day,“ he explained. “Now, what I do after that time is entirely up to me; I can do whatever I please.”

Which of the following options will have the LEAST negative consequence on Moonlighting employees?

  • APoor physical health of employees because of excess work
  • BIncreased family problems because employees will not spend quality time at home
  • CEmployees's performance may be adversely affected because of over working
  • DEmployer reducing salaries of employees because of Moonlighting
  • EEmployer reducing daily working hours from eight hours to six hoursCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (Employer reducing daily working hours from eight hours to six hours) Option E is the least negative among all the options because it suggests a reduction in daily working hours, which, while impacting income, may provide employees with more time for personal and moonlighting activities. It is considered the least negative among the given options because it addresses the potential time constraints without directly impacting health, family life, or financial stability to the same extent as the other options. Option B is not correct because moonlighting often involves working additional hours beyond a primary job, which can lead to less time spent with family. Increased family problems may arise due to a lack of quality time and attention. Option A is not correct because moonlighting can lead to an increase in workload, potentially resulting in excessive stress, fatigue, and poor physical health. The strain of managing multiple jobs may negatively impact an employee's overall well-being. Option C is not correct because overworking, especially when juggling multiple jobs, can lead to burnout and a decline in performance. Employees may find it challenging to maintain a high level of productivity and focus when stretched too thin. Option D is incorrect because if an employer decides to reduce salaries due to moonlighting, it can have a direct financial impact on employees. This may result in financial strain and dissatisfaction among employees, potentially leading to decreased morale and motivation. The most suitable option is A
Q48Decision Making·Business Decision

Read the following scenario and answer the TWO questions that follow. Moonlighting is the practice of working for one organisation while also accepting additional responsibilities and jobs, typically without the employer's knowledge in another organization. It is named as such because it is typically performed at night or on the weekends. “Doing two remote jobs at once was already happening; it was the biggest open secret out there in tech,” said a US techie. Due to weaker margins, major Indian IT companies such as Infosys, TCS, and Wipro announced that they would delay, postpone, or reduce variable pay-outs to employees for the first quarter of fiscal year 2023. This drew attention to Moonlighting. The Indian IT industry was divided on the issue of Moonlighting. Some considered it unethical, while others viewed it as an urgent necessity. Infozeta Chairman Patrick's stance on this matter was crystal clear. "There is a great deal of talk about people working part-time in the tech industry. This is cheating, pure and simple," he had tweeted. However, McMillan, CEO of Betauniverse, does not consider Moonlighting as "cheating.“. “Employment is a contract between an employer who pays me for working 'n' number of hours per day,“ he explained. “Now, what I do after that time is entirely up to me; I can do whatever I please.”

Mr. Q is an IT professional who works for a small company in Bangalore. His office hours are from 2:00 p.m. to 10:00 p.m.; thus, he wants to utilize his morning time. He thought of taking up extra work; however, he is not sure about the righteousness of his decision. His company does not have any clear policy on Moonlighting. As he is confused, he seeks opinions of the people who work in his industry to understand ethical dimension of Moonlighting. The following opinions are shared with Mr. Q: Opinion 1: Moonlighting is unacceptable since the employer has a complete right over the employee. Opinion 2: Moonlighting is a choice of the employee, and that the employer has no authority over the employee's conduct after office hours. Opinion 3: Moonlighting leads to employee missing out on important organizational work. Opinion 4: While Moonlighting, the employee might unknowingly leak critical information gained from one organization to the other. Opinion 5: It is OK to Moonlight as employers are exploitative and underpay employees. Given the abovementioned opinions,

which of the following combinations will BEST help Mr. Q to realize that Moonlighting is unethical?

  • AOpinions 1 & 5
  • BOpinions 2 & 5
  • COpinions 2 & 4
  • DOpinions 3 & 4Correct answer
  • EOpinions 2 & 3

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Opinions 3 & 4) The correct answer is option D. Opinion 3 suggests that Moonlighting leads to employees missing out on important organizational work, highlighting potential negative consequences for the primary job. This emphasizes the impact on the employee's commitment and performance in their main role. Opinion 4 points out the risk of unknowingly leaking critical information gained from one organization to another while Moonlighting. This highlights a potential ethical concern related to confidentiality and the potential harm to the interests of the primary employer. Together, these opinions provide a balanced perspective on the negative consequences and ethical dimensions of Moonlighting, helping Mr. Q understand the potential risks and downsides associated with taking up extra work outside his primary job. Option C is incorrect because Opinion 2 suggests that Moonlighting is a choice of the employee, and the employer has no authority over the employee's conduct after office hours. This perspective leans towards individual freedom. However, when combined with Opinion 4, which highlights the risk of leaking critical information, it doesn't strongly emphasize the potential negative consequences and ethical concerns related to Moonlighting. Option A is incorrect because Opinion 1 asserts that Moonlighting is unacceptable since the employer has complete control over the employee, emphasizing a strong employer-centric perspective. However, Opinion 5 suggests that Moonlighting is okay because employers are exploitative and underpay employees. These opinions present conflicting views and may not provide a coherent and balanced understanding of the ethical dimensions of Moonlighting. Option E is not correct because Opinion 2 reiterates the idea that Moonlighting is the choice of the employee, while Opinion 3 highlights the consequence of employees missing out on important organizational work. While Opinion 3 provides a potential negative consequence, the emphasis on individual choice in Opinion 2 may not strongly convey the ethical concerns related to Moonlighting. Option B is not correct because Opinion 2 emphasizes the employee's right to make choices after office hours, while Opinion 5 suggests that Moonlighting is okay due to perceived exploitation by employers. These opinions again provide conflicting perspectives and may not effectively address the ethical considerations associated with Moonlighting. The correct option is D

Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation(28 questions)

Q49Quantitative Ability·Number Systems

Suppose Haruka has a special key △ in her calculator called delta key: Rule 1: If the display shows a one-digit number, pressing delta key △ replaces the displayed number with twice its value. Rule 2: If the display shows a two-digit number, pressing delta key △ replaces the displayed number with the sum of the two digits. Suppose Haruka enters the value 1 and then presses delta key △ repeatedly. After pressing the △ key for 68 times, what will be the displayed number?

  • A7Correct answer
  • B4
  • C10
  • D2
  • E8

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (7) Write the display after each press, beginning with the entered value 1: 1 ⇒ 2 ⇒ 4 ⇒ 8 ⇒ 16 ⇒ 7 ⇒ 14 ⇒ 5 ⇒ 10 ⇒ 1. For a one-digit display, the number doubles; for a two-digit display, its two digits are added. The display therefore returns to 1 after 9 presses, so this nine-step block repeats forever. Now divide the required number of presses by the cycle length: 68 = 9 × 7 + 5. After 63 presses the display is again 1. Five further presses produce 2, 4, 8, 16 and then 7. Hence the displayed number is 7. The other choices are positions elsewhere in the same cycle: 4 occurs after two residual presses, 8 after three, 10 after eight and 2 after one. The key is to count presses, not the number of displayed terms; the initial 1 is the state before any press.
Q50Quantitative Ability·Miscellaneous Quant

Consider an+1 = 11 + 1a_n for n = 1, 2, …, 2008, 2009 where a1 = 1. Find the value of a1 a2 + a2 a3 + a3 a4 + … + a2008 a2009.

  • A2009/1000
  • B2009/2008
  • C2008/2009Correct answer
  • D60002009
  • E20086000

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (20082009) First simplify the recurrence: an+1 = 11 + 1a_n = a_na_n + 1. Starting with a_1 = 1 gives a_2 = 12, a_3 = 13, and the pattern suggests a_n = 1n. Inductively, if a_n = 1n, then an+1 = 1n1 + 1n = 1n+1, so the pattern holds. Therefore, a_n an+1 = 1n(n+1) = 1n − 1n+1. The required sum runs from n = 1 to 2008 and telescopes: (1 − 12) + (12 − 13) + … + (12008 − 12009) = 1 − 12009 = 2008/2009. Hence C is correct. The other fractions arise from reversing the final ratio, using 2009 terms instead of 2008 products, or failing to telescope the adjacent terms.
Q51Quantitative Ability·Number Systems

Amit has forgotten his 4-digit locker key. He remembers that all the digits are positive integers and are different from each other. Moreover, the fourth digit is the smallest and the maximum value of the first digit is 3. Also, he recalls that if he divides the second digit by the third digit, he gets the first digit. How many different combinations does Amit have to try for unlocking the locker?

  • A2
  • B1
  • C4
  • D5
  • E3Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (3) Let the four digits be a, b, c, d. The condition bc = a gives b = ac. Since all digits are distinct, a ≠ 1; and the maximum possible first digit is 3, so a is 2 or 3. Also, d must be smaller than all the other positive digits. For a = 2, c can be 3 or 4, producing (a,b,c) = (2,6,3) or (2,8,4). In both cases only d = 1 is smaller than every other digit. For a = 3, c = 2 gives (3,6,2), again forcing d = 1. A larger c makes b at least 9 and either leaves no valid smaller distinct fourth digit under the constraints or exceeds one digit; c = 1 leaves no positive digit smaller than c. Thus the keys are 2631, 2841 and 3621: exactly 3 combinations. Counts 1, 2, 4 and 5 result from omitting or admitting invalid digit cases.
Q52Quantitative Ability·Triangles

ABC is a triangle with BC = 5. D is the foot of the perpendicular from A on BC. E is a point on CD such that BE = 3. The value of AB2 − AE2 + 6CD is:

  • A5
  • B10
  • C14
  • D18
  • E21Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (21) Place BC on a number line with B at 0 and C at 5. Since BE = 3, E is at 3. Let D be at coordinate d. Because E lies on segment CD in the intended figure, d ≤ 3, and therefore CD = 5 − d. If the perpendicular height AD is h, the right triangles give AB2 = h2 + d2, AE2 = h2 + (d − 3)2. Subtracting cancels the unknown height: AB2 − AE2 = d2 − (d − 3)2 = 6d − 9. Hence, AB2 − AE2 + 6CD = (6d − 9) + 6(5 − d) = 6d − 9 + 30 − 6d = 21. The result is independent of where D lies in the permitted segment, which is why no angle or altitude is needed. Options 5, 10, 14 and 18 typically follow from treating CD as d or failing to cancel the common altitude correctly.
Q53Quantitative Ability·Triangles

ABC is a triangle and the coordinates of A, B and C are (a, b-2c), (a, b+4c) and (-2a,3c) respectively where a, b and c are positive numbers. The area of the triangle ABC is:

  • A6abc
  • B9abc
  • C6bc
  • D9acCorrect answer
  • ENone of the above

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (9ac) Points A(a, b−2c) and B(a, b+4c) have the same x-coordinate, so AB is a vertical base. Its length is AB = (b+4c) − (b−2c) = 6c. For a vertical base, the corresponding perpendicular height from C is the horizontal distance from C(−2a, 3c) to the line x = a. Thus, height = a − (−2a) = 3a. Therefore, Area of △ABC = (12) × 6c × 3a = 9ac. Notice that b only translates A and B vertically; it cannot affect the base length or the horizontal separation of C from AB. This immediately rules out A and B, which incorrectly retain b. Option C omits the horizontal factor a. The coordinates need not be placed in the determinant formula, although doing so gives the same absolute area. Hence the required area is 9ac.
Q54Quantitative Ability·Number Systems

Let x and y be two positive integers and p be a prime number. If x (x – p) – y (y + p) = 7p, what will be the minimum value of x – y?

  • A1
  • B3
  • C5
  • D7
  • ENone of the aboveCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (None of the above) Factor the equation: x(x−p) − y(y+p) = x2 − y2 − p(x+y) = (x+y)(x−y−p) = 7p. Set s = x+y and t = x−y−p. Then st = 7p. Also x and y are integers, so s = x+y and x−y = p+t must have the same parity. If p is odd, every factor s and t of the odd number 7p is odd. But p+t is then even, opposite in parity to s. If p = 2, one of s,t is even and the other odd; p+t has the parity of t, again opposite to s. Thus the parity needed to recover integer x and y can never hold. Consequently there is no admissible positive-integer pair, so a minimum value of x−y among such pairs does not exist. In particular, 1, 3, 5 and 7 cannot be valid minima. Hence the only appropriate choice is E.
Q55Quantitative Ability·Profit, Loss & Discount

The Guava club has won 40% of their football matches in the Apple Cup that they have played so far. If they play another n matches and win all of them, their winning percentage will improve to 50. Further, if they play 15 more matches and win all of them, their winning percentage will improve from 50 to 60. How many matches has the Guava club played in the Apple Cup so far? In the Apple Cup matches, there are only two possible outcomes, win or loss; draw is not possible.

  • A50Correct answer
  • B40
  • C30
  • DCannot be determined, as the value of n is not given
  • E60

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (50) Let m be the number of matches already played and n the next block of wins. Current wins are 40% of m, or 0.4m. After winning all n matches, 0.4m+nm+n = 0.5 ⇒ 0.4m+n = 0.5m+0.5n ⇒ n = 0.2m. After this, the club wins another 15 matches and reaches 60%: 0.4m+n+15m+n+15 = 0.6. Substitute n = 0.2m: 0.6m+151.2m+15 = 0.6 ⇒ 0.6m+15 = 0.72m+9 ⇒ 6 = 0.12m ⇒ m = 50. Then n = 10, which checks: 20 wins out of 50 becomes 30 out of 60, and then 45 out of 75 = 60%. Thus A is correct. Option D overlooks that the second percentage condition determines n and m together.
Q56Quantitative Ability·Number Systems

Raju and Sarita play a number game. First, each one of them chooses a positive integer independently. Separately, they both multiply their chosen integers by 2, and then subtract 20 from their resultant numbers. Now, each of them has a new number. Then, they divide their respective new numbers by 5. Finally, they added their results and found that the sum is 16. What can be the maximum possible difference between the positive integers chosen by Raju and Sarita?

  • A67
  • B58Correct answer
  • C49
  • D40
  • ENone of the above

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (58) Let Raju’s and Sarita’s chosen positive integers be x and y. Their final individual results are 2x−205 and 2y−205. Since these add to 16, 2x−205 + 2y−205 = 16 ⇒ 2x+2y−40 = 80 ⇒ x+y = 60. For two positive integers with a fixed sum, the difference is maximized by making the smaller integer as small as possible. The minimum positive value is 1, so the other integer is 59. Therefore, maximum difference = 59−1 = 58. This pair checks directly: the transformed values are 118−205 = 985 and 2−205 = −185, whose sum is 805 = 16. The transformed numbers need not themselves be integers or positive; only the originally chosen numbers have those restrictions. Options 49, 40 and 67 come from imposing extra restrictions or violating the fixed sum.
Q57Quantitative Ability·Miscellaneous Quant

There are three sections in a question paper and each section has 10 questions. First section only has multiple-choice questions, and 2 marks will be awarded for each correct answer. For each wrong answer, 0.5 marks will be deducted. Any un-attempted question in this section will be treated as a wrong answer. Each question in the second section carries 3 marks, whereas each question in the third section carries 5 marks. For any wrong answer or un-attempted question in the second and third sections, no marks will be deducted. A student’s score is the addition of marks obtained in all the three sections.

What is the sixth highest possible score?

  • A92.5
  • B94Correct answer
  • C95.5
  • D95
  • ENone of the above.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (94) The maximum score is 20+30+50 = 100. It is easier to list distinct score deficits from 100. In Section 1, replacing a correct response by a wrong/unattempted one loses 2−(−0.5) = 2.5 marks. Misses in Sections 2 and 3 lose 3 and 5 marks respectively. Hence every deficit has the form 2.5a+3b+5c, where a,b,c are non-negative integers within section limits. In increasing order, the first distinct deficits are 0, 2.5, 3, 5, 5.5, 6. They correspond to scores 100, 97.5, 97, 95, 94.5, 94. Although deficit 5 can be created either by two Section-1 misses or one Section-3 miss, both produce the same score and therefore occupy only one rank among possible scores. Thus the sixth highest possible score is 100−6 = 94. Options 92.5, 95 and 95.5 misorder or double-count attainable deficit levels.
Q58Quantitative Ability·Averages

Five students appeared for an examination. The average mark obtained by these five students is 40. The maximum mark of the examination is 100, and each of the five students scored more than 10 marks. However, none of them scored exactly 40 marks.

Based on the information given, which of the following MUST BE true?

  • AAt least, three of them scored a maximum of 40 marks
  • BAt least, three of them scored more than 40 marks
  • CAt least, one of them scored exactly 41 marks
  • DAt most, two of them scored more than 40 marks
  • EAt least, one of them scored less than 40 marksCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (At least, one of them scored less than 40 marks) The total of the five marks is 5×40 = 200. Suppose, contrary to E, that nobody scored below 40. Since nobody scored exactly 40 either, all five would have scores greater than 40. Their total would then exceed 5×40 = 200, contradicting the given average. Therefore at least one score must be below 40. In fact, the same averaging argument also guarantees at least one score above 40. No stronger count is forced. For example, three scores above 40 can be offset by two sufficiently low scores, so D need not hold. Conversely, two high scores can offset three lower scores, so B need not hold. A is not compulsory because it is possible to have three scores above 40 while preserving total 200, subject to the stated bounds. C is far too specific: an average condition cannot force a score of exactly 41. Hence only E must always be true.
Q59Data Interpretation·Mixed Charts

ABCD is a trapezoid where BC is parallel to AD and perpendicular to AB, with BC < AD. P is a point on AD such that CPD is equilateral. Q is a point on BC such that AQ ∥ PC. If the area of triangle CPD is 4 3, find the area of triangle ABQ.

  • A2 3Correct answer
  • B4 3
  • C4
  • D8 3
  • ENone of the above

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (2 3) Let the equilateral triangle CPD have side s. Its area is (34)s2 = 4 3, so s2 = 16 and s = 4. Put P=(p,0), D=(p+4,0). Then the equilateral apex is C=(p+2, 2 3). Because BC ∥ AD and AB is perpendicular to both, take A=(0,0) and B=(0,2 3). Let Q=(q,2 3) on BC. Now PC has vector (2,2 3), so its slope is 3. Since AQ ∥ PC, slope(AQ) = 2 3/q = 3 ⇒ q = 2. Thus AB = 2 3 and BQ = 2. Therefore, Area of △ABQ = (12)(2 3)(2) = 2 3. The position parameter p cancels, so no additional trapezoid length is required. Options B and D usually result from omitting the one-half in the triangle-area formula or using the full equilateral side as BQ.
Q60Quantitative Ability·Progressions (AP/GP/HP)

Separately, Jack and Sristi invested the same amount of money in a stock market. Jack’s invested amount kept getting reduced by 50% every month. Sristi’s investment also reduced every month, but in an arithmetic progression with a common difference of Rs. 15000. They both withdrew their respective amounts at the end of the sixth month. They observed that if they had withdrawn their respective amounts at the end of the fourth month, the ratio of their amounts would have been the same as the ratio after the sixth month. What amount of money was invested by Jack in the stock market?

  • ARs. 100000Correct answer
  • BRs. 120000
  • CRs. 150000
  • DRs. 180000
  • ENone of the above

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Rs. 100000) Let the common initial investment be P. Jack has P/16 after four months and P/64 after six months. Sristi has P−60,000 and P−90,000 respectively. Equal ratios give P/16P−60,000=P/64P−90,000. Thus 4(P−90,000)=P−60,000, so 3P=300,000 and P=₹100,000.
Q61Quantitative Ability·Profit, Loss & Discount

Rajnish bought an item at 25% discount on the printed price. He sold it at 10% discount on the printed price. What is his profit in percentage?

  • A10
  • B15
  • C17.5
  • D20Correct answer
  • ENone of the above

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (20) Take the printed price as ₹100. Rajnish buys at a 25% discount, so his cost price is CP = 100−25 = ₹75. He sells at a 10% discount on the same printed price, so SP = 100−10 = ₹90. Therefore profit = 90−75 = ₹15. Profit percentage must be calculated on cost price, not printed price: Profit% = (1575)×100 = 20%. Hence D is correct. A, 10%, merely repeats the selling discount. B, 15%, treats the ₹15 profit as a percentage of the assumed printed price ₹100. A quick ratio method gives the same result: CP:SP = 75:90 = 5:6, so profit is 1 on a cost base of 5, i.e. 15 = 20%. The actual printed price is immaterial because all quantities scale proportionally.
Q62Quantitative Ability·Inequalities

Given A = |x + 3| + |x − 2| − |2x − 8|. The maximum value of |A| is:

  • A111
  • B9Correct answer
  • C6
  • D3
  • E∞

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (9) The breakpoints are x = −3, 2 and 4. Evaluate A piecewise. For x≤−3, A = −(x+3)+(2−x)−(8−2x) = −9. For −3≤x≤2, A = (x+3)+(2−x)−(8−2x) = 2x−3, ranging from −9 to 1. For 2≤x≤4, A = (x+3)+(x−2)−(8−2x) = 4x−7, ranging from 1 to 9. For x≥4, A = (x+3)+(x−2)−(2x−8) = 9. Thus −9≤A≤9, and both endpoints occur. Therefore the maximum of |A| is 9. Option E incorrectly assumes that the unbounded individual absolute-value terms make their signed combination unbounded; their linear growth cancels outside the breakpoints. Values 3 and 6 can arise from testing only convenient interior points, while 111 has no basis in the piecewise ranges. Hence B.
Q63Data Sufficiency·Quant DS

The problem below consists of a question and two statements numbered 1 & 2. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Rahim is riding upstream on a boat, from point A to B, at a constant speed. The distance from A to B is 30 km. One minute after Rahim leaves from point A, a speedboat starts from point A to go to point B. It crosses Rahim’s boat after 4 minutes. If the speed of the speedboat is constant from A to B, what is Rahim’s speed in still water? 1. The speed of the speedboat in still water is 30 km/hour. 2. Rahim takes three hours to reach point B from point A.

  • AStatement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient
  • BStatement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient
  • CEach statement alone is sufficient
  • DBoth statements together are sufficient, but neither of them alone is sufficientCorrect answer
  • EStatements 1 & 2 together are not sufficient

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Both statements together are sufficient, but neither of them alone is sufficient) Rahim rides upstream; the speedboat starts 1 minute later and meets him after 4 minutes of its own travel, so Rahim has been moving for 5 minutes when they meet. Equal meeting distances give 5(R−c)=4(S−c), i.e. R−cS−c=45. Statement 1 alone: S=30 ⇒ 5(R−c)=4(30−c). One equation in R and c — not a unique still-water speed. Statement 2 alone: upstream time 3 h for 30 km ⇒ R−c=10, but R itself is still free. Together: R−c=10 and S=30 ⇒ 1030−c=45 ⇒ c=17.5 ⇒ R=27.5 km/h (unique). So neither statement works alone, but both together do → D. (Some published letter keys mark C; the DS algebra does not support “each alone.”)
Q64Data Sufficiency·Quant DS

The problem below consists of a question and two statements numbered 1 & 2. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. In a cricket match, three slip fielders are positioned on a straight line. The distance between 1st slip and 2nd slip is the same as the distance between 2nd slip and the 3rd slip. The player X, who is not on the same line of slip fielders, throws a ball to the 3rd slip and the ball takes 5 seconds to reach the player at the 3rd slip. If he had thrown the ball at the same speed to the 1st slip or to the 2nd slip, it would have taken 3 seconds or 4 seconds, respectively.

What is the distance between the 2nd slip and the player X? 1. The ball travels at a speed of 3.6 km/hour. 2. The distance between the 1st slip and the 3rd slip is 2 meters.

  • AStatement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient
  • BStatement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient
  • CEach statement alone is sufficientCorrect answer
  • DBoth statements together are sufficient, but neither of them alone is sufficient
  • EStatements 1 & 2 together are not sufficient

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Each statement alone is sufficient) At the same throwing speed, distances to the first, second and third slips are in the time ratio 3:4:5. Write them as 3k, 4k and 5k. The requested second-slip distance is 4k. Statement 1: 3.6 km/h = 1 ms. In 4 seconds the ball covers 4 m, so the requested distance is fixed. Statement 1 alone is sufficient. Statement 2: Let adjacent slips be d apart. Since the three slips are collinear and equally spaced, the squared distances from any point X satisfy (XF_12 + XF_32 − 2XF_22) = 2d2. Substitution gives (9+25−32)k2 = 2d2 ⇒ 2k2=2d2 ⇒ k=d. The first-to-third distance is 2d=2 m, so d=k=1 and XF_2=4 m. Statement 2 alone is also sufficient. Hence each statement independently answers the question. A, B and D understate sufficiency; E overlooks both independent scale determinations.
Q65Quantitative Ability·Number Systems

The addition of 7 distinct positive integers is 1740. What is the largest possible “greatest common divisor” of these 7 distinct positive integers?

  • A42
  • B60Correct answer
  • C74
  • D140
  • ENone of the above.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (60) Let the seven integers be g a_1, g a_2, …, g a_7, where g is their GCD and the a_i are distinct positive integers with overall GCD 1. Then g(a_1+…+a_7)=1740. The smallest possible sum of seven distinct positive integers is 1+2+…+7=28. Therefore 1740g ≥ 28, giving g ≤ 62.14. Also g must divide 1740. Among its divisors not exceeding this bound, the largest is 60. It remains to show 60 is attainable. Since 174060=29, choose coefficients 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, which are distinct, sum to 29 and have GCD 1. Multiplying each by 60 produces seven valid distinct integers whose sum is 1740 and whose GCD is exactly 60. Thus 60 is both an upper-feasible divisor and constructible. Values 74 and 140 violate the minimum-sum bound; 42 is feasible-sized but not maximal.
Q66Quantitative Ability·Trigonometry

Find the value of: sin615° + sin675° + 6 sin215° sin275°sin415° + sin475° + 5 sin215° sin275°

  • Asin15° + sin75°
  • B65
  • C1Correct answer
  • Dsin15° cos15°
  • ENone of the above

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (1) Let a = sin215° and b = sin275°. Since sin75° = cos15°, a+b = sin215°+cos215° = 1. Also, ab = sin215°cos215° = (sin30°/2)2 = (14)2 = 116. The numerator becomes a3+b3+6ab = (a+b)3−3ab(a+b)+6ab = 1−3ab+6ab = 1+3ab. The denominator is a2+b2+5ab = (a+b)2−2ab+5ab = 1+3ab. Numerator and denominator are therefore identical (both equal 1916), so their ratio is 1. Option B, 65, comes from comparing only the displayed coefficients and ignoring the trigonometric relation. A and D leave angle expressions even though the symmetric sums reduce completely. Hence C is correct.
Q67Quantitative Ability·Ratio & Proportion

A small jar contained water, lime and sugar in the ratio of 90:7:3. A glass contained only water and sugar in it. Contents of both (small jar and glass) were mixed in a bigger jar and the ratio of contents in the bigger jar was 85:5:10 (water, lime and sugar respectively). Find the percentage of water in the bigger jar?

  • A70
  • B75
  • C80
  • D72.5
  • E85Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (85) The final mixture is explicitly stated to have water : lime : sugar in the ratio 85:5:10. The total number of ratio parts is 85+5+10 = 100. Therefore the water fraction in the bigger jar is 85100, and water percentage = (85100)×100 = 85%. No reconstruction of the separate jar and glass quantities is required because the final composition is already supplied. If one assigns the bigger jar a convenient total of 100 litres, it contains 85 litres water, 5 litres lime and 10 litres sugar, making the result immediate. The small jar’s 90:7:3 ratio only describes one input and should not be mistaken for the final water percentage. Options 70, 75, 80 and 72.5 may arise from averaging the two containers’ water percentages without weighting their amounts; such an average is invalid unless the container quantities are known and equal. Hence the answer is 85%.
Q68Quantitative Ability·Probability

A painter draws 64 equal squares of 1 square inch on a square canvas measuring 64 square inches. She chooses two squares (1 square inch each) randomly and then paints them. What is the probability that two painted squares have a common side?

  • A1122016Correct answer
  • B13
  • C562016
  • D397
  • E7108

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (1122016) A 64-square-inch square canvas divided into 64 unit squares forms an 8×8 grid. Count unordered adjacent pairs by orientation. Each of the 8 rows has 7 horizontal common sides, giving 8×7=56 horizontal adjacent pairs. Similarly, each of the 8 columns has 7 vertical common sides, giving another 56. Hence favourable pairs = 56+56=112. The painter chooses any two distinct squares from 64, so the total number of unordered pairs is C(64,2) = 64×632 = 2016. Therefore, P(common side) = 1122016, which is option A. Option C counts only one orientation. Choices such as 13 are much too large because most pairs in an 8×8 grid are separated. A common corner is not enough—the question requires a full common side—so diagonal neighbours must not be included. The preceding cricket wording is unrelated contamination in the stem and does not affect this grid calculation.
Q69Quantitative Ability·Simple & Compound Interest

Jose borrowed some money from his friend at simple interest rate of 10% and invested the entire amount in stocks. At the end of the first year, he repaid 15th of the principal amount. At the end of the second year, he repaid half of the remaining principal amount. At the end of third year, he repaid the entire remaining principal amount. At the end of the fourth year, he paid the last three years’ interest amount. As there was no principal amount left, his friend did not charge any interest in the fourth year. At the end of fourth year, he sold out all his stocks. Later, he calculated that he gained Rs. 97500 after paying principal and interest amounts to his friend. If his invested amount in the stocks became double at the end of the fourth year, how much money did he borrow from his friend?

  • A250000
  • B200000
  • C150000
  • D125000Correct answer
  • ENone of the above

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (125000) Let the borrowed principal be P. At the end of year 1, interest is 10% of P, and Jose repays P/5, leaving 4P/5. Year-2 interest is therefore 10% of 4P/5 = 0.08P. He then repays half the remaining principal, i.e. 2P/5, leaving 2P/5. Year-3 interest is 0.04P, after which the last principal is repaid. Total interest = 0.10P+0.08P+0.04P = 0.22P. The stocks become 2P. After accounting for repayment of the entire principal P and interest 0.22P, the net gain is 2P−P−0.22P = 0.78P. Given 0.78P = 97500, P = 97500/0.78 = 125000. Hence D. Charging interest in year 4 would be incorrect because no principal remains; using 10% of the original principal in every year similarly overstates interest.
Q70Quantitative Ability·Time, Speed & Distance

A non-flying ant wants to travel from the bottom corner to the diagonally opposite top corner of a cubical room. The side of the room is 2 meters. What will be the minimum distance that the ant needs to travel?

  • A6 meters
  • B(2 2 + 2) meters
  • C2 3 meters
  • D2 6 meters
  • E2 5 metersCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (2 5 meters) The ant must remain on the surfaces, so the space diagonal 2 3 is not available. Unfold the two adjacent faces that connect the starting bottom corner to the opposite top corner. They form a rectangle whose dimensions are 2+2=4 metres and 2 metres. A straight line on this unfolded rectangle corresponds to a continuous surface path across the common edge. Its length is 42+22 = 20 = 2 5 metres. Any bent route between the same unfolded endpoints is at least this long, so this is the minimum. Refolding maps the straight segment back onto the room’s walls without changing length. Option A, 6 m, follows three cube edges and is valid but not shortest. Option B uses a face diagonal plus an edge, again longer. Option C is the forbidden through-the-air body diagonal. Option D results from an incorrect unfolding dimension. Hence the shortest non-flying route is 2 5 m.
Q71Data Interpretation·Mixed Charts

Go through the information given below, and answer the THREE questions that follow. The three graphs below capture relationship between economic (and social) activities and subjective well-being. The first graph (Graph-1) captures relationship between GDP (per-capita) and Satisfaction with life, across different countries and four islands: Gizo, Roviana, Niijhum Dwip, and Chittagong. The Graph-2 captures three different measures of subjective well-being (Satisfaction with life, Affect Balance and Momentary Affect) across the four islands, which have different levels monetization (Index). The Graph-3 captures levels of thirteen different socio-economic activities across four islands.

Graphs 1 and 2

Complete Graph 1 and Graph 2 with island labels and axes

Graph 3

Complete Graph 3 radar charts for Roviana, Gizo, Niijhum Dwip and Chittagong

Index of monetization: Percentage of table fish sold outside the islands Momentary affect: The mood captured at various points in a day over several days ESM: Expressed sentiment Method Life Satisfaction and Satisfaction with Life are same N represents number of respondents to survey on each dimension across the four islands

Which of the following will BEST capture the relationship between GDP (x-axis) and Life Satisfaction (y-axis) of countries?

  • Ay = x
  • By = x2
  • Cy = log(x)Correct answer
  • Dy = 1x2
  • Ey = ex

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (y = log(x)) Graph 1 is described as relating GDP per capita to life satisfaction across countries. The visible pattern is increasing but flattening: at low GDP, an additional unit of income is associated with a relatively large rise in satisfaction; at high GDP, similar absolute gains correspond to progressively smaller rises. This is the characteristic concave shape of y = log(x). A linear rule y=x would require a constant slope throughout. The quadratic y=x2 and exponential y=e^x are convex and become steeper as GDP rises, the opposite of diminishing increments. The inverse-square rule y=1x2 decreases as GDP increases, contradicting the positive association. The option is intended to capture shape, not literal units: GDP and satisfaction are measured on different scales, so no listed equation should be read as an exact calibrated fit. Among them, only the logarithmic curve combines monotonic growth with a declining marginal slope. Hence C best represents the plotted relationship.
Q72Data Interpretation·Mixed Charts

Go through the information given below, and answer the THREE questions that follow. The three graphs below capture relationship between economic (and social) activities and subjective well-being. The first graph (Graph-1) captures relationship between GDP (per-capita) and Satisfaction with life, across different countries and four islands: Gizo, Roviana, Niijhum Dwip, and Chittagong. The Graph-2 captures three different measures of subjective well-being (Satisfaction with life, Affect Balance and Momentary Affect) across the four islands, which have different levels monetization (Index). The Graph-3 captures levels of thirteen different socio-economic activities across four islands.

Graphs 1 and 2

Complete Graph 1 and Graph 2 with island labels and axes

Graph 3

Complete Graph 3 radar charts for Roviana, Gizo, Niijhum Dwip and Chittagong

Index of monetization: Percentage of table fish sold outside the islands Momentary affect: The mood captured at various points in a day over several days ESM: Expressed sentiment Method Life Satisfaction and Satisfaction with Life are same N represents number of respondents to survey on each dimension across the four islands

Which of the following, about the four islands, can be BEST inferred from the graphs?

  • AWhenever affect balance increases, satisfaction with life decreases
  • BWhenever Pleasant activities increase, satisfaction with life decreases
  • CWhenever Religion increases, satisfaction with life decreases
  • DWhenever satisfaction with life increases, family also increases
  • EIndex of monetization varies maximum in Niijhum DwipCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (Index of monetization varies maximum in Niijhum Dwip) This is a direct cross-graph inference. For each island, compare the spread shown for the monetization index rather than comparing the absolute heights of unrelated well-being or activity measures. Niijhum Dwip has the widest displayed variation in that index, so E is the inference supported by the graphs. The other options assert universal inverse or direct relationships—each uses “whenever.” Such a statement must hold across every successive island comparison. Graphs 2 and 3 contain counter-orderings: affect balance and life satisfaction do not move oppositely in every case; pleasant activities and religion likewise do not produce an invariably lower satisfaction value; and family activity does not rise every time satisfaction rises. One exception is enough to reject each of A–D. Because the figure values are not embedded in the payload, exact pairwise differences cannot be reproduced here; the valid method is to rank the plotted monetization ranges and separately test every universal claim against all four island observations. That casewise check leaves only E.
Q73Data Interpretation·Mixed Charts

Go through the information given below, and answer the THREE questions that follow. The three graphs below capture relationship between economic (and social) activities and subjective well-being. The first graph (Graph-1) captures relationship between GDP (per-capita) and Satisfaction with life, across different countries and four islands: Gizo, Roviana, Niijhum Dwip, and Chittagong. The Graph-2 captures three different measures of subjective well-being (Satisfaction with life, Affect Balance and Momentary Affect) across the four islands, which have different levels monetization (Index). The Graph-3 captures levels of thirteen different socio-economic activities across four islands.

Graphs 1 and 2

Complete Graph 1 and Graph 2 with island labels and axes

Graph 3

Complete Graph 3 radar charts for Roviana, Gizo, Niijhum Dwip and Chittagong

Index of monetization: Percentage of table fish sold outside the islands Momentary affect: The mood captured at various points in a day over several days ESM: Expressed sentiment Method Life Satisfaction and Satisfaction with Life are same N represents number of respondents to survey on each dimension across the four islands

Which of the following site has the highest fishing to economic ratio?

  • AGizo
  • BChittagong
  • CRovianaCorrect answer
  • DNiijhum Dwip
  • EAll four islands have equal dependence

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Roviana) Read the fishing and economic spokes for each island from Graph 3 and compare fishing divided by economic activity. Roviana's fishing spoke is roughly three times its economic spoke. The corresponding ratios for Gizo, Niijhum Dwip and Chittagong are smaller because their fishing levels are closer to, or below, their economic levels. Therefore Roviana has the highest fishing-to-economic ratio, so C is correct.
Q74Data Interpretation·Tables

Go through the information given below, and answer the THREE questions that follow. The table captures Age and Gender distribution of Covid Positive Cases in a country. However, a part of data is missing, represented through unknown categories.

AgeTotal Confirmed Covid Positive CasesFemaleMaleUnknown
All117,586*62,47153,8151,300
Unknown235
0-1822,36211,14710,880
19-3032,86018,76813,743
31-4024,11012,69311,118
41-5014,1207,2646,688
51-6011,1745,5675,523
61-707,3003,7563,513
71-803,4291,8751,534
81+1,9961,276708

* Includes <5 cases in age group 19-30 and 51-60 who reported gender as Other/Transgender. The All-row gender totals are corrected here so that they agree with the age-row sums and the stated unknown-age proportionality.

* In unknown age category, the ratio of males (unknown age category) and females (unknown age category) to total unknown cases (unknown age category) is same as the ratio of males (All) and females (All) to the total (Total Confirmed Covid Positive Cases).

In unknown age category, the ratio of males (unknown age category) and females (unknown age category) to total unknown cases (unknown age category) is same as the ratio of males (All) and females (All) to the total (total confirmed covid positive cases). How many females were in the unknown age category (rounded to nearest integer)?

  • A120
  • B140
  • C110
  • D125Correct answer
  • E130

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (125) The corrected All-row female share is 62,471117,586. Applying that share to 235 unknown-age cases gives 235×62,471117,586=124.82, which rounds to 125. The age-row sums independently leave 62,471−62,346=125 females of unknown age.
Q75Data Interpretation·Tables

Go through the information given below, and answer the THREE questions that follow. The table captures Age and Gender distribution of Covid Positive Cases in a country. However, a part of data is missing, represented through unknown categories.

AgeTotal Confirmed Covid Positive CasesFemaleMaleUnknown
All117,586*62,47153,8151,300
Unknown235
0-1822,36211,14710,880
19-3032,86018,76813,743
31-4024,11012,69311,118
41-5014,1207,2646,688
51-6011,1745,5675,523
61-707,3003,7563,513
71-803,4291,8751,534
81+1,9961,276708

* Includes <5 cases in age group 19-30 and 51-60 who reported gender as Other/Transgender. The All-row gender totals are corrected here so that they agree with the age-row sums and the stated unknown-age proportionality.

* In unknown age category, the ratio of males (unknown age category) and females (unknown age category) to total unknown cases (unknown age category) is same as the ratio of males (All) and females (All) to the total (Total Confirmed Covid Positive Cases).

In which age category, the percentage of female covid patients is the HIGHEST?

  • A61-70
  • B31-40
  • C41-50
  • D51-60
  • E81+Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (81+) Compute female cases as a percentage of each row total. For age 81+, 1,2761,996≈63.9%, higher than 61–70 (≈51.5%), 31–40 (≈52.6%), 41–50 (≈51.4%) and 51–60 (≈49.8%). Therefore 81+ is highest.
Q76Data Interpretation·Tables

Go through the information given below, and answer the THREE questions that follow. The table captures Age and Gender distribution of Covid Positive Cases in a country. However, a part of data is missing, represented through unknown categories.

AgeTotal Confirmed Covid Positive CasesFemaleMaleUnknown
All117,586*62,47153,8151,300
Unknown235
0-1822,36211,14710,880
19-3032,86018,76813,743
31-4024,11012,69311,118
41-5014,1207,2646,688
51-6011,1745,5675,523
61-707,3003,7563,513
71-803,4291,8751,534
81+1,9961,276708

* Includes <5 cases in age group 19-30 and 51-60 who reported gender as Other/Transgender. The All-row gender totals are corrected here so that they agree with the age-row sums and the stated unknown-age proportionality.

* In unknown age category, the ratio of males (unknown age category) and females (unknown age category) to total unknown cases (unknown age category) is same as the ratio of males (All) and females (All) to the total (Total Confirmed Covid Positive Cases).

Which of the following is true for “unknown gender Category”? 1. Unknown age group patients are less likely (percentage term) to provide information about gender than any other age category 2. Between 31 and 80, when age increases patients, in percentage terms, are less likely to provide information about gender 3. Elderly (81+) category patients are more likely to give information about gender than 0-18 age group

  • A3 onlyCorrect answer
  • B2 only
  • C1 and 2
  • D1 and 3
  • E2 and 3

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (3 only) Unknown-gender rates are found from row total minus female and male counts. The unknown-age row has 2235≈0.85% unknown gender, but several age groups have smaller rates, so statement 1 is false. From 31–40 through 71–80 the rates do not decrease monotonically, so statement 2 is false. The 81+ rate is 121,996≈0.60%, below the 0–18 rate 33522,362≈1.50%, so elderly patients are more likely to provide gender information: statement 3 alone is true.

General Knowledge(25 questions)

Q77General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Geography & Environment

Which of the following is the world’s largest River delta?

  • AThe Nile River delta
  • BThe Amazon River delta
  • CThe Mekong River delta
  • DThe Ganges River deltaCorrect answer
  • EThe Mississippi River delta

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (The Ganges River delta) The Ganges River delta is the world's largest river delta.
Q78General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Which former Prime Minister of India wrote “Kaidi Kavirai Ki Kundalian,” a poetic compilation, while being lodged in jail?

  • AChandra Shekhar
  • BI.K. Gujral
  • CJawaharlal Nehru
  • DAtal Bihari VajpayeeCorrect answer
  • ELal Bahadur Shastri

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Atal Bihari Vajpayee) Former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee wrote *Kaidi Kavirai Ki Kundalian* while in jail.
Q79General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Which of the following animals are on the State Emblem of India?

  • ALion, Tiger, and Bull
  • BLion, Bull, and HorseCorrect answer
  • CLion, Elephant, and Horse
  • DLion, Tiger, and Cow
  • ELion, Bull, and Elephant

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Lion, Bull, and Horse) The animals shown on India's State Emblem are the lion, bull and horse.
Q80General Knowledge / Current Affairs·History & Polity

From the following, choose the Article in the Constitution of India that proclaims: “It shall be the obligation of every citizen of India to safeguard and develop the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and animals, and to have compassion for living beings.”

  • AArticle 51A (g)Correct answer
  • BArticle 14A
  • CArticle 21
  • DArticle 15
  • EArticle (13b)

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Article 51A (g)) The constitutional duty to protect and improve the natural environment appears in Article 51A(g).
Q81General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Current Affairs

Which of the following breakthrough decisions was taken at the COP 27 (8-20 Nov 2022, Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt)?

  • AEstablish and operationalize a “loss and damage” fundCorrect answer
  • BAccept and operationalize a “Net zero” target for every country
  • CEstablish and operationalize a “global early warning system” for weather events
  • DAccept and operationalize a “global carbon tax and trading mechanism”
  • EEstablish and operationalize a “global ecosystem services payments mechanism”

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Establish and operationalize a “loss and damage” fund) A central COP27 decision was to establish and operationalize a loss and damage fund.
Q82General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Current Affairs

Which company developed Vikram–S, India’s first private space rocket, that was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota on November 18, 2022?

  • AMahindra Aerospace
  • BIndian Rotorcraft
  • CSkyroot AerospaceCorrect answer
  • DBrahmos Aerospace Private Limited
  • ELockheed Martin India Private Limited

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Skyroot Aerospace) Skyroot Aerospace developed Vikram-S, India's first privately built rocket launched into space.
Q83General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Which institution published the cartoon book titled Raju & The Forty Thieves – A Booklet on Modus Operandi of Financial Fraudsters?

  • AThe Ministry of Finance, Government of India
  • BThe Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India
  • CThe State Bank of India
  • DThe Punjab National Bank
  • EThe Reserve Bank of IndiaCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (The Reserve Bank of India) The Reserve Bank of India published *Raju & the Forty Thieves*, a booklet about financial-fraud methods.
Q84General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Business & Economy

Which price index is being used to measure inflation by the Reserve Bank of India?

  • AWholesale Price Index
  • BConsumer Price IndexCorrect answer
  • CGDP Deflator
  • DPurchasing Power Parity based Index
  • EIndustrial Cost and Price Indices

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Consumer Price Index) The Reserve Bank of India uses the Consumer Price Index as its principal measure of retail inflation.
Q85General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Business & Economy

Identify the sectors into which the Indian economy is divided, for the calculation of GDP?

  • AAgriculture, Defence, Information Technology and Manufacturing
  • BPrimary and non-primary
  • CAgriculture, Manufacturing and E-commerce
  • DAgriculture, Manufacturing and ServicesCorrect answer
  • EGovernment, Private and Social

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Agriculture, Manufacturing and Services) For GDP classification in this question, the Indian economy is divided into agriculture, manufacturing and services.
Q86General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Which institution was renamed as “Niti Aayog”?

  • APlanning Commission of IndiaCorrect answer
  • BPolicy Aayog of India
  • CGovernment Policy Commission
  • DEconomic Planning Council
  • EInfrastructural and Development Commission

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Planning Commission of India) NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission of India; the keyed predecessor is therefore the Planning Commission.
Q87General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Geography & Environment

The first ever Wildlife conservation bond (a financial instrument) in the world, was floated to conserve which of the following critically endangered species?

  • ABlack Rhino in South AfricaCorrect answer
  • BCheetah in India
  • COpossum in Australia
  • DGiant Panda in China
  • EWater Buffalo in Africa

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Black Rhino in South Africa) The first wildlife conservation bond described was issued to support the black rhinoceros in South Africa.
Q88General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK
CEOBiography
A. Indra Nooyi1. Zero to One
B. Gregory Zuckerman2. The Man Who Solved the Market
C. Peter Thiel3. My Life in Full
D. Sheryl Sandberg4. Lean In

Match the famous CEOs with the title of their biographies.

  • AA1, B2, C3, D4
  • BA3, B2, C1, D4Correct answer
  • CA2, B1, C4, D3
  • DA1, B3, C4, D2
  • EA4, B3, C1, D2

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (A3, B2, C1, D4) The correct correspondence is A3, B2, C1, D4; each label must be paired in that order.
Q89General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Arts & Culture

BTS (Bangtan Boys), the pop-music band, belongs to which country?

  • AUK
  • BUSA
  • CIndia
  • DSouth KoreaCorrect answer
  • EAustralia

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (South Korea) The pop group BTS is from South Korea.
Q90General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Which of the following is NOT attributed as a reason for Russian invasion of Ukraine?

  • ASaving people of Russian origin in the eastern region of Ukraine
  • BNATO’s expansion into East Europe and Ukraine
  • CUkraine’s refusal to export wheat to RussiaCorrect answer
  • DRussia fears that Ukraine, with the support of NATO, will claim back Crimea
  • EUkraine has citizens of different ethnicities

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Ukraine’s refusal to export wheat to Russia) Ukraine's refusal to export wheat to Russia is the listed claim not identified as a cause of Russia's invasion of Ukraine.
Q91General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Current Affairs

Who has been appointed as the Chief Justice of India in November 2022?

  • AJustice S.J. Mukhopadhaya
  • BJustice Dhananjay (D.Y) ChandrachudCorrect answer
  • CJustice Yashwant (Y.V.) Chandrachud
  • DJustice N. V. Ramana
  • EJustice U. U. Lalit

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Justice Dhananjay (D.Y) Chandrachud) Justice D. Y. Chandrachud was appointed Chief Justice of India in November 2022.
Q92General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Sports

Which of the following countries did not qualify for FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022?

  • AMorrocco
  • BSenegal
  • CSwitzerland
  • DItalyCorrect answer
  • EAustralia

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Italy) Italy is the exception among the listed countries: it did not qualify for FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022.
Q93General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK
Old NameNew Name
A. Google1. Altria
B. Facebook2. Alphabet
C. Phillippe Morris3. Meta
D. McAfee4. Intel Security

Match the new names of the given companies with their respective old names.

  • AA1, B2, C3, D4
  • BA3, B2, C1, D4
  • CA2, B1, C4, D3
  • DA1 B3, C4, D2
  • EA2, B3, C1, D4Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (A2, B3, C1, D4) The correct correspondence is A2, B3, C1, D4; each label must be paired in that order.
Q94General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Who of the following is not a Gig worker?

  • AZomato delivery Boy
  • BUber driver
  • CPerson running a salonCorrect answer
  • DFreelance worker
  • EPlumber on call

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Person running a salon) A person running a salon is the listed exception because that person operates a business rather than performing platform-based gig work.
Q95General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Which of the following is not a site associated with the Indus Valley Civilization?

  • ALothal
  • BHarappa
  • CMohenjo-Daro
  • DRopar
  • EBhimbetkaCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (Bhimbetka) Bhimbetka is the exception to the stated category: “site associated with the Indus Valley Civilization.”
Q96General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Geography & Environment
Animal / BirdSanctuary / Park / Region
A. Great Indian bustard1. Manas National Park
B. Megapode2. Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary
C. Jerdon’s Courser3. Desert National Park
D. Pigmy Hog4. Nicobar Island Sanctuary

Match the following animals/birds with the Wildlife Sanctuary, National Park or a region that they naturally occur.

  • AA4, B3, C1, D2
  • BA2, B3, C4, D1
  • CA2, B4, C1, D3
  • DA3, B4, C2, D1Correct answer
  • EA1, B4, C3, D2

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (A3, B4, C2, D1) The correct correspondence is A3, B4, C2, D1; each label must be paired in that order.
Q97General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK

Which of the following is the right description of INS-Arihant?

  • ANuclear powered SubmarineCorrect answer
  • BAircraft Carrier
  • CDestroyer
  • DFrigate
  • ECorvette

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Nuclear powered Submarine) INS Arihant is a nuclear-powered submarine.
Q98General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Static GK
Secretary-GeneralCitizenship
A. Kurt Waldheim1. Austria
B. Kofi Annan2. South Korea
C. Antonio Guterres3. Portugal
D. Ban Ki Moon4. Ghana

Match the United Nation's Secretary Generals with their citizenships, at the time of appointment.

  • AA4, B3, C1, D2
  • BA2, B3, C4, D1
  • CA2, B4, C1, D3
  • DA1, B4, C2, D3
  • EA1, B4, C3, D2Correct answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (A1, B4, C3, D2) The correct correspondence is A1, B4, C3, D2; each label must be paired in that order.
Q99General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Current Affairs

Which organization, in October 2022, imposed a penalty on Alphabet for violating anti-trust laws in India?

  • ACompetition Commission of IndiaCorrect answer
  • BMonopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices
  • CSupreme Court of India
  • DGovernment of India
  • ENiti Aayog

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Competition Commission of India) The Competition Commission of India imposed the October 2022 antitrust penalty on Alphabet.
Q100General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Current Affairs

Which of the following was NOT a reason associated with Sri Lankan economic crisis of 2022?

  • ACOVID-19
  • BShift towards organic agriculture
  • CDecline of tourist inflow
  • DDecline in FOREX reserves
  • EDecline of fisheriesCorrect answer

Answer: E

Show explanation
Answer:E (Decline of fisheries) Decline of fisheries is the exception to the stated category: “reason associated with Sri Lankan economic crisis of 2022.”
Q101General Knowledge / Current Affairs·Sports

Who scored the maximum number of goals in the recently concluded FIFA world cup, 2022?

  • AKylian MbappéCorrect answer
  • BLionel Messi
  • COlivier Giroud
  • DMarcus Rashford
  • ENeymar da Silva Santos Junior

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Kylian Mbappé) Kylian Mbappé scored the most goals at the 2022 FIFA World Cup.

Answer key

Quick reference — click a question number to jump to the full solution.

Q#SectionAnswerTopic
1Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningBVerbal Ability
2Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningCVerbal Ability
3Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningCReading Comprehension
4Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningAVerbal Ability
5Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningBVerbal Ability
6Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningBVerbal Ability
7Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningEVerbal Ability
8Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningAVerbal Ability
9Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningBReading Comprehension
10Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningEVerbal Ability
11Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningAReading Comprehension
12Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningEReading Comprehension
13Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningDReading Comprehension
14Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningAReading Comprehension
15Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningDReading Comprehension
16Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningAReading Comprehension
17Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningDReading Comprehension
18Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningDReading Comprehension
19Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningBReading Comprehension
20Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningDReading Comprehension
21Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningCReading Comprehension
22Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningCReading Comprehension
23Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningEReading Comprehension
24Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningBReading Comprehension
25Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningEReading Comprehension
26Verbal Ability & Logical ReasoningEReading Comprehension
27Decision MakingCDecision Making
28Decision MakingBDecision Making
29Decision MakingCDecision Making
30Decision MakingEDecision Making
31Decision MakingCDecision Making
32Decision MakingDDecision Making
33Decision MakingADecision Making
34Decision MakingADecision Making
35Decision MakingADecision Making
36Decision MakingADecision Making
37Decision MakingEDecision Making
38Decision MakingCDecision Making
39Decision MakingCDecision Making
40Decision MakingBDecision Making
41Decision MakingDDecision Making
42Decision MakingDDecision Making
43Decision MakingEDecision Making
44Decision MakingADecision Making
45Decision MakingDDecision Making
46Decision MakingCDecision Making
47Decision MakingEDecision Making
48Decision MakingDDecision Making
49Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationAQuantitative Ability
50Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationCQuantitative Ability
51Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEQuantitative Ability
52Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEQuantitative Ability
53Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationDQuantitative Ability
54Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEQuantitative Ability
55Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationAQuantitative Ability
56Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationBQuantitative Ability
57Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationBQuantitative Ability
58Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEQuantitative Ability
59Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationAData Interpretation
60Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationAQuantitative Ability
61Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationDQuantitative Ability
62Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationBQuantitative Ability
63Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationDData Sufficiency
64Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationCData Sufficiency
65Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationBQuantitative Ability
66Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationCQuantitative Ability
67Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEQuantitative Ability
68Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationAQuantitative Ability
69Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationDQuantitative Ability
70Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEQuantitative Ability
71Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationCData Interpretation
72Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEData Interpretation
73Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationCData Interpretation
74Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationDData Interpretation
75Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationEData Interpretation
76Quantitative Ability & Data InterpretationAData Interpretation
77General KnowledgeDGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
78General KnowledgeDGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
79General KnowledgeBGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
80General KnowledgeAGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
81General KnowledgeAGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
82General KnowledgeCGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
83General KnowledgeEGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
84General KnowledgeBGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
85General KnowledgeDGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
86General KnowledgeAGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
87General KnowledgeAGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
88General KnowledgeBGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
89General KnowledgeDGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
90General KnowledgeCGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
91General KnowledgeBGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
92General KnowledgeDGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
93General KnowledgeEGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
94General KnowledgeCGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
95General KnowledgeEGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
96General KnowledgeDGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
97General KnowledgeAGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
98General KnowledgeEGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
99General KnowledgeAGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
100General KnowledgeEGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs
101General KnowledgeAGeneral Knowledge / Current Affairs

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are there in XAT 2023?

XAT 2023 has 101 questions across Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning, Decision Making, Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation, General Knowledge, with a total duration of 3h.

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Yes — this page hosts the past-year XAT paper for 2023, with the full question set, answer key, and explanations for revision.

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Yes. Every question shows the correct answer, with a collapsible explanation. A full answer-key table is also available at the bottom of the page.

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